- Aug 4, 2013
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Working on becoming Orthodox and this one issue keeps popping up in discussions I am having. As Orthodox, we reject the idea of the "Immaculate Conception." My understanding is that there was no need for this because the idea of an individual bearing the guilt of Adam's sin is wrong. However, we do bear the consequences of what he did . . . which is primarily sin.
So - here goes.
1. What is meant (as you understand it) by the "Stain of Sin." RC apologists insist that the IC was necessary because Mary would have inherited the stain of sin. Do you know what they are talking about?
2. There is also the idea that without the IC, Mary would have inherited a broken human nature which was subject to choosing sin. Was Mary's nature in some way affected by the fall in the Garden?
3. How is the stain of sin different from the guilt of sin? I'm not sure I can put an accurate definition of the two in contrast to each other, so I am looking for help.
Any further definition of our opposition to the IC will also be appreciated.
Thank you
So - here goes.
1. What is meant (as you understand it) by the "Stain of Sin." RC apologists insist that the IC was necessary because Mary would have inherited the stain of sin. Do you know what they are talking about?
2. There is also the idea that without the IC, Mary would have inherited a broken human nature which was subject to choosing sin. Was Mary's nature in some way affected by the fall in the Garden?
3. How is the stain of sin different from the guilt of sin? I'm not sure I can put an accurate definition of the two in contrast to each other, so I am looking for help.
Any further definition of our opposition to the IC will also be appreciated.
Thank you