Speaking in Tounges

I'm speaking in tounges right now...

AV1611 - Paul stated that we should have more than theological doctrine. He said we needed experiential knowledge.

The disciples didn't have the book of Acts to follow when they received the baptism of the Holy Ghost and spoke in tongues. They had no scripture really to back it up. There was nothing in the OT about tounges of fire sitting on top of your head...

Yet, they experienced. And it became their doctrine...

I agree with the pastor, experience counts for a lot in this world. There's a lot of stuff the Bible doesn't directly deal with now days. Indirectly, yes, but directly no. IE: Transgenderism, but lets nto get into that here.
We really need to sit back, relax and let eachother discover the Holy Spirit as He wants us to.

881/2% pretty strong. believe what you want. if during my personal relationship with god he asks to stand up and bark like a dog i am willing. open the eyes of you heart and except what our lord has for us - eternal life and unconditional love. we are all striving for the same thing. believe in the word and let the holy spirit lead the heart.

decajunrev. said:

881/2% pretty strong. believe what you want. if during my personal relationship with god he asks to stand up and bark like a dog i am willing. open the eyes of you heart and except what our lord has for us - eternal life and unconditional love. we are all striving for the same thing. believe in the word and let the holy spirit lead the heart.

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AMEN!!!!!!!

Quaffer said:

This seems to be a common interpretation of this scripture. However, it does not make sense.

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I believe that it does Before we go any further, remember what the purpose of the miracles were. They are not solely for our benefit, their purpose was not so that we could be happy - but they existed so that men might be saved. Also, something to think about, when was the last time that you saw someone raised from the dead?

In 1 Cor 13:8 there are 3 things listed as everntually passing away. 1)prophecies, 2) tongues, 3) knowledge. IF prophecies and tongues have passed away then we would have to logically conclude that knowledge has also passed away.

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This passage makes sense when we determine what knowledge means. It cannot simply mean the concept of being able to know something - for when the faithful enter into heaven they most certainly must have an increase in knowledge, or what they know.

Since we are dealing with a few chapter that cover manifestations of the Holy Spirit specifically, we must understand that this is also one of the various manifestations of the Holy Spirit. Prophecies are a manifestation, speaking different languages is a manifestation - why then all of a sudden would we change the context and make "knowledge" something other than a manifestation of the Holy Spirit?

"Knowledge", in this passage, seems to be referring to a gift in which an individual would miraculously know certain things. How amazing would it be to have an Apostles of Christ Jesus to lay a hand on you and give you knowledge - and knowledge which you could then use to more effectively preach the gospel of Christ!

Since no 2 people on earth seem to agree on the interpretation of the Bible, I seriously doubt that it is the "perfect" being referred to here.

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There are many people whom I agree with - but this is besides the point. If our total agreement was the basis on which things were to be judged, then Jesus Christ could not be the Son of God. There are people who believe that He was merely a man, and nothing more. Just because there are people who disagree with what the Scriptures teach, in no way invalidates God's word and what it teaches.

God IS perfect though and when Jesus "come's" back then that which is perfect is come. Not until then.

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The problem here is that you're using the wrong definition for the word "perfect". You seem to be using "without error". I agree with you that God is without error . I agree with you that Christ Jesus is without error. I also believe that the Scriptures, the word of God are without error.

However, when all that the Children of Israel had was the Pentateuch (first 5 books of the Bible) - those were still "without error". When some more of God's word was revealed, that new revelation was "without error". While Paul was writing the letters that we now have they were "without error". BUT this is not the meaning for the word perfect in this passage.

Perfect is contrasted with the word part. Part referrs to something that is incomplete, therefore, perfect must refer to something that IS complete. While the Christians in the first century were still receiving revelations and manifestations of the Holy Spirit, the word of God was not completely revealed - they knew in part. However, now that the revelation has been completed, it is no longer in part, but it is now PERFECT.

You say we don't need any manifestations of the Spirit? What about love, joy, peace, gentleness, longsuffering, gentleness, etc.? Those are all manifestions of the Holy Spirt. If one is not filled with the Spirit it is clearly seen in the non-manifestion of these fruit.

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Read through 1 Corinthians 12. What you call spiritual gifts are referred to as "manifestations of the Holy Spirit". It's just another name, a much more descriptive name, for the same thing. I was in no way attempting to teach what you have said.

I still very much need the Holy Spirit to make intercession for me. 1 Cor 14 says that this gift of tongues is for my private conversations with God. It says that from those private conversations in His language I receive all the strength I need to make it. Yes, I read His word and I am strengthened, however, in my own effort which would be according to only what I understand, I can only go so far. I want to go beyond my human understanding though and speak with Him on His level. I've walked with Him for over 40 years now and I still find immense strength in these times with Him. . .exactly as 1 Cor 14 describes.

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You're going to have to explain what you mean here for me, if you don't mind. Paul in chapter 14 of 1 Corinthians is referring to someone who is speaking out loud in a tounge, or foreign language, while there is no one else there to interpret. If someone were to start speaking Swahili and there was none to interpret, where I'm from they would be the only ones receiving any benefit because no one else speaks that language.

SH89 said:

1 Corinthians 14
2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

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As I prefer the American Standard Version, I have posted the first few verses of chapter 14 so that all may see to where I am referring :

1 Corinthians 14:1-4 ASV

Follow after love; yet desire earnestly spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy. (2) For he that speaketh in a tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God; for no man understandeth; but in the spirit he speaketh mysteries. (3) But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men edification, and exhortation, and consolation. (4) He that speaketh in a tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.

In these first few verses, if these were the only ones that we were to look at, then it might seem like there was an impossibility for others to understand the tounge or it was some other-worldly language. However, this is not true.

We must remember that the word used here refers to a language that one might have aquired naturally - in other words, English is a tongue. French is a tounge. German is a tounge.

The implication of the things that Paul is saying are to the individual speaking in a tongue while there is no one to interpret. Again, if someone were to start speaking in Swahili, I wouldn't understand a thing that you were saying - and all of your speech would be useless toward my edification.

1 Corinthians 14:7-13 ASV

Even things without life, giving a voice, whether pipe or harp, if they give not a distinction in the sounds, how shall it be known what is piped or harped? (8) For if the trumpet give an uncertain voice, who shall prepare himself for war? (9) So also ye, unless ye utter by the tongue speech easy to understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye will be speaking into the air. (10) There are, it may be, so many kinds of voices in the world, and no kind is without signification. (11) If then I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be to him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh will be a barbarian unto me. (12) So also ye, since ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may abound unto the edifying of the church. (13) Wherefore let him that speaketh in a tongue pray that he may interpret.

In verse 7 Paul's point is very simple. No one plays music without making a distinction in the notes so that the listeners can understand what is being played. If you are speaking in a language that I don't know, I can't understand what you said. In fact, in verse 9, he says that you would be speaking into the air.

1 Corinthians 14:27-28 ASV

If any man speaketh in a tongue, let it be by two, or at the most three, and that in turn; and let one interpret: (28) but if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

When you read through the entire passage in its context, it seems as though the common thread is the listeners not being able to understand what is spoken. This is not because it is some strange, unearthly language, but because it is a language that no one knows.

What Paul says in verse 28 really hammers home the point of what he's been saying up to this point: the gifts were not merely for their pleasure and enjoyment, but so that men might saved. If you were going to speak in a tongue, you needed to make sure someone could interpret, otherwise you were to keep quiet. The manifestations of the Spirit weren't to show off, but they were to be used in trying to save men.

riverpastor said:

I'm speaking in tounges right now...

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Yes, English

AV1611 - Paul stated that we should have more than theological doctrine. He said we needed experiential knowledge.

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Can you show me where he said exactly that in the Scriptures? It's my understanding that Paul wanted the Christians to be strong in the Lord (Ephesians 6:10), to take up the full armor of God (Ephesians 6:11), to war the good warfare (1 Timothy 1:18) and to finish the race, running so that we attain (1 Corinthians 9:24). All this is putting faith into action - not making actions into faith. We ought to practice and live and the Scriptures teach, not make the Scriptures say what we practice and live.

Perhaps this isn't what you were intending to say?

The disciples didn't have the book of Acts to follow when they received the baptism of the Holy Ghost and spoke in tongues. They had no scripture really to back it up. There was nothing in the OT about tounges of fire sitting on top of your head...

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They were given the word of God through revelations - which is why they needed the miracles to prove what they were saying was from God. Since we have the Bible now, we don't need to do that.

Yet, they experienced. And it became their doctrine...

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Tongues of fire didn't become their doctrine, that was a one time event - and the only reason why anything did become something they taught was because God told them to teach it. They didn't experience things and then decide to teach them - rather God instructed them on what they ought to teach (1 Corinthians 2:12).

Quaffer said:

I'm not claiming that experience is proof. I agree wholeheartedly that the Holy Bible is the foundation for all doctrine. However, I have done my homework of studying the Word on my own and not going only by what another person and/or book says...and...I have experience that what I have read in the Holy Bible is in fact reality. Come on AV. . .you did not answer my question. Have you done your own search or are you working of someone else's?

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I have read and reread scripture on this issue. I have also read many commentaries and talked to various pastors on his from both sides and I am convinced that the cessationist case is Biblical. For example I know tongues existed in Biblical times and I know their purpose as defined by scripture. So my challenge to you is to find me a passage from scripture that shews the gift of tongues is for today.

When you said that claiming something that is not of God is, that that was blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. According to the Holy Bible which you said your doctrine is based on, blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is the unpardonable sin. Therefore, you have made the implication that any and all who speak in tongues and believe it is God has blasphemed the Holy Spirit, and therefore unforgiven and going to hell.

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There is a thread on this topic and so I suggest you post this there. This thread is about tongues not blasphemy of the Holy Ghost.

AV...of course you can't find anything in the Bible that says tongues are for today. That is a rediculous challenge.

That is like me asking you to show me the passage that says the KJV is the only bible for today.

Any of you guys ever bungee-jump???

JVD said:

AV...of course you can't find anything in the Bible that says tongues are for today. That is a rediculous challenge.

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So if the Bible does not say that they are for now how do you know that they are? Construct for me an argument, based solely on scripture, that shews that the Gift of Tongues is for today.

AV1611 - It's obviously not for you at this time. It may never be. And you know what? That's okay. You are where you are in the Kingdom and I am where I am in the Kingdom (as we all are).

I wasn't "brought up" speaking in tongues. The illumination of the Holy Spirit of the Word of God changed my way of thinking towards speaking in tongues. I did not shine light on the Word; the Holy Spirit shined light on it to me.

His revelation of the Word proved its value for my life in the here and now. As does any promise that God gives you. It may never say that "such-and-such is for 2000 years from now". As a matter of fact, it doesn't say that salvation is for today...

But let me share with you a little secret:

The word for WORD here is RHEMA. Rhema is an illuminated Word. It is a revealed Word. It has nothing to do with your mind, only that it can be fruitful because of revelation knowledge of the Word. God is speaking. And His Word is Rhema.

Therefore, true FAITH comes by hearing God speak to you. Without revelation knowledge, it's just ink on paper. No more than the Reader's Digest or Farmer's Almanac. Without revelation - you have no faith.

Have you heard God speak to you?

Jesus said in the wilderness when being tempted by satan, "Man shall not live by bread alone but by every Word (RHEMA) that proceedeth (continuously proceeds) out of the mouth of God.

Without illumination of the Word, all you can ever truly have is dried-up, dead theology.


The Father agrees with the Word and the Holy Spirit agrees with the Father and the Word agrees with the Holy Spirit. You see, there is no separation of one or three? The Godhead agrees in One.

I am responsible for the illumination, the revelation, that I receive from the Lord Jesus. And so are you.

If the Word (and its contents) was relevant when it was written, show me scripture where it is not relevant today.

If it was ever relevant. It is always relevant.


I just simply agree with the agreement that God Himself has already agreed upon. I come into agreement with Him.



rp

I have a question to all who think speaking in tongues has stopped:

I've often been in services where someone has spoken loudly in tongues. Following this, someone else will get up and say, "This is what the Lord has just spoken..."
I have yet to see this happen without it being very accurate and touching people's lives. Don't come and tell me that this was not interpretation of tongues but rather a word of knowledge because, when the people get up and speak, they specifically say that what they're doing is giving the interpretation of the tongues just spoken.

I've also been involved in a service where a Nigerian tourist was visiting the church and someone got up and spoke in tongues. The person speaking had no clue that this tourist was in the service. After the service the man came up to the person who spoke and asked him when he had been to Nigeria and learnt his language. The person had never been to Nigeria and had no clue about what he had just said but it touched the Nigerian and he eventually gave his life to Christ. This is just like what happened in Acts so please tell me how it could have disappeared by the present day?

riverpastor said:

AV1611 - It's obviously not for you at this time. It may never be. And you know what? That's okay. You are where you are in the Kingdom and I am where I am in the Kingdom (as we all are).

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If miracles still exist - which is what tongues are, a miracle - why doesn't someone show AV1611 and myself a miracle to prove that we are wrong. This is afterall what the miracles were given for, to prove the word of God (Mark 16:20).

It's interesting to note the following:

Acts 8:14-19 ASV

Now when the apostles that were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John: (15) who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Spirit: (16) for as yet it was fallen upon none of them: only they had been baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. (17) Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit. (18) Now when Simon saw that through the laying on of the apostles' hands the Holy Spirit was given, he offered them money, (19) saying, Give me also this power, that on whomsoever I lay my hands, he may receive the Holy Spirit.

In Acts chapter 8 we have an occurrence that directly affects what we are talking about here. In verse 14 the Christians in Jerusalem, specifically the Apostles, sent two people to Samaria: Peter and John. What was the reason for their sending Peter and John? Well in verse 15 there were Samaritans who had become Christians but didn't have any manifestations of the Holy Spirit - the text as says that "for as yet it was fallen on none of them".

Why is this important? Well, the disciples in Samaria were saved without having any of these miraculous spiritual gifts. So anyone who is teaching that you must have a gift to be saved is teaching a false doctrine.

Another important thing to note is that they sent Apostles. Why would they send only Peter and John? Why not someone else? Verses 17, 18 and 19 have the answer for us: in order for them to receive the Holy Spirit the Apostles had to lay their hands on them. Simon saw this and offered Peter money so that he might have the same ability. The lesson is that in order for one to receive a spiritual gift an Apostle must lay their hands on you.

Of course, there are two instances in the Scriptures where this is not the case - and these are of the greatest importance! Once in Acts chapter 2 when the salvation in Christ Jesus was given to the Jews, and the second in Acts chapter 10 when salvation is given to the Gentiles.

Each of these ocurred only one time for each group and that was to demonstrate that God had offered salvation to both groups. Apart from these two ocurrences, the only way to obtain a spiritual gift is to have an Apostle lay their hands on you.

Paul indicates this very thing when he writes:

Romans 1:11-12 ASV

For I long to see you, that I may impart unto you some spiritual gift, to the end ye may be established; (12) that is, that I with you may be comforted in you, each of us by the other's faith, both yours and mine.

Why would Paul need to be there with them in order that they might have some spiritual gift? Paul was an Apostle, and the only way that one could obtain a spiritual gift was if an Apostle laid their hands on you.

So my question is this, to those who claim to be able to speak in tongues, which Apostle laid their hands on you?

I wasn't "brought up" speaking in tongues. The illumination of the Holy Spirit of the Word of God changed my way of thinking towards speaking in tongues. I did not shine light on the Word; the Holy Spirit shined light on it to me.

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Can you show me in the Scriptures where anything like this is mentioned?

His revelation of the Word proved its value for my life in the here and now. As does any promise that God gives you. It may never say that "such-and-such is for 2000 years from now". As a matter of fact, it doesn't say that salvation is for today...

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Actually, I believe that it does:

Acts 2:39 ASV

For to you is the promise, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call unto him.

This is just one example. The gospel is to be preached so that men might saved until the day when all things come to an end.

But let me share with you a little secret:

Romans 10:17 - So then faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God.​

The word for WORD here is RHEMA. Rhema is an illuminated Word. It is a revealed Word. It has nothing to do with your mind, only that it can be fruitful because of revelation knowledge of the Word. God is speaking. And His Word is Rhema.

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Just because you call "rhēma " an illuminated word does not make it so. No where in the passage that you are quoting from does it imply anything about this word being illuminated, but this is something that you have added. In fact, the word means the following:

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Thayer Definition:

1) that which is or has been uttered by the living voice, thing spoken, word

1a) any sound produced by the voice and having definite meaning

1b) speech, discourse

1b1) what one has said

1c) a series of words joined together into a sentence (a declaration of one’s mind made in words)

1c1) an utterance

1c2) a saying of any sort as a message, a narrative

1c2a) concerning some occurrence

2) subject matter of speech, thing spoken of

2a) so far forth as it is a matter of narration

2b) so far as it is a matter of command

2c) a matter of dispute, case at law

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This is every definition that Mr. Thayer has offered. No where is there any meaning in the word rhema of something illuminated. No where. The literal definition of the word as it is used here is akin to "a declaration of one’s mind made in words". This follows perfectly with 1 Corinthians 2:12.

Therefore, true FAITH comes by hearing God speak to you. Without revelation knowledge, it's just ink on paper. No more than the Reader's Digest or Farmer's Almanac. Without revelation - you have no faith.

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Again, I can't find this anywhere in the Scriptures. In fact, there are Apostles who have written things directly to the contrary of what you just said:

John 20:30-31 ASV

Many other signs therefore did Jesus in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book: (31) but these are written, that ye may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye may have life in his name.

Why doesn't John mention that these have to be illumined? In fact, he says that you can believe just from the things that are written - the Scriptures. The things that we have in the Bible are the word of God as referred to in Romans 10:17. I can believe because God has given us His word in the Scriptures.

Have you heard God speak to you?

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Every time I read the Scriptures

Jesus said in the wilderness when being tempted by satan, "Man shall not live by bread alone but by every Word (RHEMA) that proceedeth (continuously proceeds) out of the mouth of God.

Without illumination of the Word, all you can ever truly have is dried-up, dead theology.

I John 5:7 - For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit.​

The Father agrees with the Word and the Holy Spirit agrees with the Father and the Word agrees with the Holy Spirit. You see, there is no separation of one or three? The Godhead agrees in One.

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You're mixing apples and oranges. 1 John 5:7 has the word LOGOS, not the word rhema. 1 John 5:7 is referring to Christ and not the Scriptures. Romans 10:17 is referring to the Scriptures.

I am responsible for the illumination, the revelation, that I receive from the Lord Jesus. And so are you.

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Again, I can't seem to find this anywhere. I am genuinely asking you to show me where this is found.

If the Word (and its contents) was relevant when it was written, show me scripture where it is not relevant today.

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Well, it's not that it isn't relevant, it's just that you're trying to make it say things that it doesn't say. 1 Corinthians 12-14 happen to be filled with very important messages and principles, one of which was that spiritual gifts were temporary.

If it was ever relevant. It is always relevant.

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Yes, but certain things were written for certain people. There are things that were written about qualifications to be an Apostle. There are no more people who are qualified. Does this mean that this passage is now irrelevant? No, now we can use it to know that anyone who claims to be an Apostles is not telling the truth. The passage is still relevant, it's use has just changed.

LADY DI said:

I believe speaking in tongues is a gift.
Some have it and some don't.

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I think it is open to all of us like prophecy, those who want it recieve it. I dont however feel that people who speak in tounges are better than those who dont and vise versa. What really matters is that we all seek after Jesus!!!!!

aggie03 said:

Why is this important? Well, the disciples in Samaria were saved without having any of these miraculous spiritual gifts. So anyone who is teaching that you must have a gift to be saved is teaching a false doctrine.

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I agree with you 100%.

aggie03 said:

Each of these ocurred only one time for each group and that was to demonstrate that God had offered salvation to both groups. Apart from these two ocurrences, the only way to obtain a spiritual gift is to have an Apostle lay their hands on you.

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I must be an Apostle then. I've laid hands on folks and they have received the infilling of the Spirit with speaking in tongues.

As for the rest of your discourse aggie03, you tire me.

I don't expect you to have revelation. Once you have it, you know it. And you would not question it in someone else's life either (that is, rvelation by the Holy Spirit).

It's like bungee jumping. You can't explain the experience and the truth about it unless you've jumped yourself.


Here, I use the same scripture that you used above to show that it is the gift of the Holy Ghost that is the promise to as many as the Lord our God invites and bids to come to Himself. To say that it is speaking only of salvation is only your interpretation. But, I guess if my interpretation is different then that makes me "bunk"?!?!?!

Which here, then, brings up the point again about revelation.

The scripture above does not say that the promise is for all those who choose of their own will and make it up in their own mind to come to God.... No, it says "for as many as the LORD OUR GOD SHALL CALL" (KJV).

If He called you through scriptures, then it was by revelation. The point is, He called. RHEMA. His voice utters the call. His voice speaks His Word.

aggie03 said:

Again, I can't seem to find this anywhere. I am genuinely asking you to show me where this is found.

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It's in the Kingdom. Peel your eyes off the bark and see the forest. There is so much more that you're not seeing because you are only looking at a certain depth - a certain level. And it is at that level that you are probably trying to do the best you can with the Word. When you look at a rock beneath the water, are you looking at the water or the rock? From the way you write, you can only see at water level.

The Kingdom of God is within you. The Living Christ Jesus dwells in your spirit. He appears to me in dreams and visions and He speak to me there. I have seen Him heal. I have seen Him dance. I have seen Him sitting upon His throne. He speaks to me concerning others lives. I hate for anyone to miss out on Who He is on the inside of each believer.

No, I can't find specific scriptures for the things I've seen. Let me example you: I was in a meeting and the Lord gave me a vision of a huge boulder as I was praying for a man I'd never met. I was communicating with the Holy Spirit and pondering this image. The Lord spoke in Spirit to me and said the word "chisel".

As I began to tell this man what I saw and what I heard the Lord broke open a flow of information for this man through me. The Lord spoke to me of how this man had been through sorrows and rejection and that the Lord was using those things to "chisel" him into the man of God that the Lord wanted him to be. As I was saying these things, this man began to smile and nodding his head.

I continued to minister to other people. Afterwards, I talked with this man again and I asked him if what the Lord had shown me was something that he needed. He told me that he was going through several things with his estranged spouse and with the church where he had been recently attending (feeling rejection on both accounts). But then he said, "and about two weeks ago I was praying about these things and when I went to be that night I dreamed of a chisel. I've been praying to the Lord for two weeks now to show me what that chisel meant."

This word proved to be an encouragement for a man who was hurting and in pain and did not understand what was happening to him through these circumstances.

I didn't have scripture for a chisel. I didn't have scripture for the boulder. What I do have is an authority and privilege as a son of God to enter into the realm of the Kingdom and to minister to others through the power of the Living Christ. How do I access the Kingdom of God. By faith. Hebrews 11:6 states that without faith it is impossible to please Him for those that come to Him must believe that He is and that He is a rewarder of them that diligently seek Him.

When we worship Him, do we bow down at the book???

And, on the point of miracles. Seeing you wouldn't believe because you have already decided what your theology is to be.

I have witnessed literally hundreds of miracles and healings through the power of God in me and through me through my years of missions and pastoring.

wotupjoe said:

I've often been in services where someone has spoken loudly in tongues. Following this, someone else will get up and say, "This is what the Lord has just spoken..."

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So have I but surely you recognise that just because someone said "This is what the Lord has just spoken..." does not make it so.

This is just like what happened in Acts so please tell me how it could have disappeared by the present day?

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Actually in Acts the gift was a sign to Jews

av1611 said:

Actually in Acts the gift was a sign to Jews

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It doesn't actually state that in the Book of Acts does it???

Paul the Apostle said:

First Corinthians 14:22 - Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.

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Let's see here, tongues are for a sign to them that believe not. It doesn't say neither Jew nor Gentile. It was written to a Gentile church in Corinth. There are still those that do not believe in the earth today... Could it be??? Maybe???

riverpastor said:

It doesn't actually state that in the Book of Acts does it???

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Who was present at Pentecost? Oh yes I remember..."And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven." Acts 2:5

Let's see here, tongues are for a sign to them that believe not. It doesn't say neither Jew nor Gentile. It was written to a Gentile church in Corinth. There are still those that do not believe in the earth today... Could it be??? Maybe???

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But what were signs a sign of? Ah yes...cursing i.e. judgement and this because Israel had murdered Jesus Christ. The letter was written to Corinth so that they may understand the purpose of the gift and so prevent abuses of it...abuses which have unfortunately continued unto this day.

So you agree that tongues is available today to the believer? Or else how could there be an abuse of it?

I don't see anywhere in the Corinthians letter about cursing and judgement...