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garee

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Love Jonezing said:
Paul testified that, "I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all," 1 Corinthians 14:18. How do you interpret this? How many languages did he speak or how many languages were he referring too?



I would suggest that Paul because Christ placed him in many situations where he did no know the language. God would perform the work as He performed with Peter. Christ would do the translating. As far as how many languages, as many as there are.It is God who makes the hearing ear and provides the tongue so that men can understand what he wants to convey to us by faith, the unseen eternal.His faith according to His labor of love is after no man.
 
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garee

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Are you trying to say that all reformations are hog wash?Does that include the first century reformation?

What kind of citations are you looking for? Does the scriptures alone....all things written in the law and prophets, also called sola sciptura.... make it so we can trust God, as we do seek His approval according to his loving commandment(2 Timothy 2:15)?


Do we need more than he has revealed.And remember he infallibly informs us we do not need any man to teach us by. but as it, Gods' faith as it is written(that in which the gates of hell could never prevail against) teaches us according to his promises that he will and not maybe teach, comfort and guide us we therefore abide in Him ( 1John 2:27-28) our high Priest
 
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Shieldmaiden4Christ

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What are you even talking about? None of that makes sense in context of the history of how the Church came about, how the Church has existed for millennia, how the Scriptures came about, and how the Scriptures have been fostered for millennia. Anything interpreted outside of the Church (the Body of Believers) makes no sense; the Bible is about the salvation of individuals and about the salvation of mankind as a whole (community). It makes little sense to have personal interpretation, when there can be no reliable agreement between personal/private interpretations. You absolutely have to go by what has been taught about those Scriptures for the millennia of the Church's and the Bible's existence; if you don't do that, you're fighting a losing battle for your salvation because Scriptural interpretation belongs to the community, not to conflicting individualities. God gave you a brain for a reason; use all available resources (yes, including prayer) to understand Scriptures.
 
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Shieldmaiden4Christ

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Although this is from a Roman Catholic perspective on Biblical interpretation, the following text is incredibly important in delineating why fundamentalist approaches to the Bible are fallacious and ahistorical.


http://catholic-resources.org/ChurchDocs/PBC_Interp-FullText.htm
 
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Shieldmaiden4Christ

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great article. It's as if they (the fundamentalist) believe God took over the bodies of the authors of Scriptures and forced them to write the words they wrote against their will.

I agree with you on that; I have the article bookmarked, but I have so many unorganized bookmarks it's hard to find the right one at the right time. The interpretation styles listed in the entire article are what drew me to liturgical / traditional Christianity in the first place. I grew up in a heavily fundamentalist Christian area, and my experience with how to interpret Bible verses was very different than theirs. There's sort of a token of narcissism to fundamentalism, that I guess might be wound up in the whole concept of American individualism / Horatio Algernon rags-to-riches by the bootstraps stories. I see some piety in fundamentalist circles but it's tinged with arrogance and special snowflake syndrome (God chose me! God granted ME salvation and grace! Me me me.). This is contrasted to the combination of piety and humility you see in Eastern Christianity (I am humbled that God has allowed me into the folds of his flock. I am worthy yet unworthy.)
 
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garee

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Context of whose history, according to whose bias, of God or of men?
I am talking about reformations.The subject you are avoiding. The kind or reformation that comes from hearing God, as it is written. Did the first century reformation come and go without effect? Or is it still imposed and we need to start sacrificing lambs, sewing up the veil that was rent because Christ did not come yet and fulfill every ceremonial law that those shadows, and types pointed to ?

Hebrews 9:10 Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation.

What does only in meat and drinks signify? Did it signify that they were required up till the reformation and seeing they could not confer saving grace as shadows we put our trust in Christ finished work .

Knowing with full knowledge if he has begun the good work of salvation in us he will finish it. Or do we simply put no confidence in Christ word?

Philippians 1:6Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ

And private interpretations like finger prints is what we do have as personal commentaries of His interpretation, the Bible. We seek His interpretation and not that of our own or of the fathers.

2 Peter 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation’

Prophecy of scripture is according to His interpretation or revelation, not of our own self’s

Shieldmaiden4christ wrote...God gave you a brain for a reason; use all available resources (yes, including prayer) to understand Scriptures.


Yes he gave us brains but it His thoughts that make up the unity of the church not of us. The church is not in the place of God. And we compare the spiritual words of Christ, scripture to scripture, also called faith to faith.
 
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Shieldmaiden4Christ

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Are you ignorant of the context of my original statement, or are you intentionally taking what I've said out of context? I'm explicitly talking about the Protestant Reformation, which should be patently obvious. I've never heard of what happened in the First Century referenced as a "Reformation". You also have the incorrect concept of the Church, in terms of Scripture, but the fact that you are not in one of the three older Churches makes it obvious why your understanding would be warped and lacking.
 
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There are two general fallacies with Sola Scriptura (Bible only); reasons why it simply isn't true.

Historical fallacies...

  1. The first New Testament writing did not appear for 20 years. The Christians during this interval relied on apostolic teaching, not on the Bible.
  2. The full set of Bible books (the canon) was not determined for hundreds of years.
  3. Is there a Biblically mandated switchover at which time Christians go from relying on the teaching authority of the apostles and bishops, then switch to Bible only, to Sola Scriptura?
Other fallacies...

  1. The Bible itself doesn't teach Sola Scriptura.
  2. Even if the Bible did teach Sola Scriptura, we would first need a source outside the Bible to inform us that the Bible is to be our teaching authority. Here's why: how do we know whether to accept the claims of the Bible, or the Koran, or the book of Mormon? Merely because a book claims to be the authority for truth is not good enough reason.
  3. Everyone has different interpretations of the Bible.
  4. Many of the heresies from the past and into the present day are based on the Bible.
 
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Love Jonezing

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If you read my post you would know that I said that I would rather come here than to go to a website. So please don't ignore me and then demand that I read your post. Please stop jumping to conclusions. How many time do I have to say that I am listening?
 
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Love Jonezing

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What evidence? I have seen no evidence, just conjecture.
 
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Love Jonezing

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What evidence? I have seen no evidence, just conjecture.
...
 
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Shieldmaiden4Christ

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What evidence? I have seen no evidence, just conjecture.

So, do we need to quote the ENTIRE chapter around cherry-picked verse to explain why your interpretations are incorrect?
 
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Love Jonezing

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Love Jonezing said:
Paul testified that, "I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all," 1 Corinthians 14:18. How do you interpret this? How many languages did he speak or how many languages were he referring too?
I interpret it just like he says. He spoke more tongues then all of them. For me tongues can be unto God and unto man.
@Love Jonezing

My paragraph that you quoted was NOT directed at you, but at the other Protestant poster.
No worries. Thanks
 
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ArmyMatt

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I believe the bible is to be read in context. However, allow me to say that the bible was not entirely written by the church nor was it written only for the church. God's word is a light that all may see and repent.

so, you say that the Bible is to be read in context, but then reject the context for which it was written.......
 
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Love Jonezing

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You know, that is an awesome question. For the record, I am not bible only. However, "traditions are valid only when they are based on Scripture and are in full agreement with Scripture. Traditions that contradict the Bible are not of God and are not a valid aspect of the Christian faith" (gotquestions.org).
 
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Love Jonezing

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so, you say that the Bible is to be read in context, but then reject the context for which it was written.......
Huh, what did I reject that was in context? Please let me know what scripture that was. Please look back at all the scriptures everyone quoted. Please tell me which one did I take out of context in regards to Mary.
 
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ArmyMatt

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you reject the Church that compiled the Scripture to be read in the Church for her purposes. you basically ignore the 400 years between the NT being written, and the NT being brought together, and what those Christians had to say.
 
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