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Speaking in Tongues- did all in the NT do it?

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RefrusRevlis

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You had said this:


Quote:
The scriptures do not teach that a person does not understand what they are saying
When actually they do.

What I was trying to get across is that the person has a message they are to speak, but do not understand the language that comes out of their mouth. Their mind/understanding is not able to be communicated (if the tongue is not interpreted).

I suppose the question is, was a person permitted to interpret their own tongue speaking.

Refrus
 
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RefrusRevlis

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As for Acts 2 and glossa verses dialektos . . . the point is that it can be proven that they spoke ecstatic tongues while the hearers heard in their own dialects. We can look at this if you would like.

What do you mean - ecstatic tongues? Are you saying the Apostles spoke in a non-human language but were heard in human language? If so give some support for this.
Refrus
 
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Mathetes the kerux

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What I was trying to get across is that the person has a message they are to speak, but do not understand the language that comes out of their mouth. Their mind/understanding is not able to be communicated (if the tongue is not interpreted).

I suppose the question is, was a person permitted to interpret their own tongue speaking.

Refrus
Yes it does . . .

1 Cor 14:5
greater is one who prophesies than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may receive edifying.
NASU

Paul says that one can interpret his own tongue.
 
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Mathetes the kerux

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What do you mean - ecstatic tongues? Are you saying the Apostles spoke in a non-human language but were heard in human language? If so give some support for this.
Refrus
Yep.

The Greek is pretty clear . . . each individual heard the disciples AS A GROUP speaking their own language . . . while at the same time the one next to him heard THE SAME GROUP speaking in their own language.

Like a Chinese man, a Russian, and a Greek walk into a room with a group speaking in tongues . . . the Chinese man hears the WHOLE group speaking Chinese . . . the Russian hears them in Russian . . . and the Greek in Greek . . . AT THE SAME TIME.

This was the miracle of Pentecost . . . for otherwise it was just a bunch o' guys speaking foreign languages . . . and how are strangers to know that they didn't know the language? The speaking of foreign languages in and of themselves can hardly be awe inspiring.
 
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Mathetes the kerux

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Yep.

The Greek is pretty clear . . . each individual heard the disciples AS A GROUP speaking their own language . . . while at the same time the one next to him heard THE SAME GROUP speaking in their own language.

Like a Chinese man, a Russian, and a Greek walk into a room with a group speaking in tongues . . . the Chinese man hears the WHOLE group speaking Chinese . . . the Russian hears them in Russian . . . and the Greek in Greek . . . AT THE SAME TIME.

This was the miracle of Pentecost . . . for otherwise it was just a bunch o' guys speaking foreign languages . . . and how are strangers to know that they didn't know the language? The speaking of foreign languages in and of themselves can hardly be awe inspiring.
The case is much stronger than just this . . . but this is the basic arguement for demonstrating that there is more than meets the eye than just a face value reading of the English.

There is linguistic usage of glossias lalien . . . en pnuemati verses nous . . . etc. etc.
 
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RefrusRevlis

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Yes it does . . .


Quote:
1 Cor 14:5
greater is one who prophesies than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may receive edifying.
NASU
Paul says that one can interpret his own tongue.

Hmm, does it actually say that he can interpret his own tongue, or is it saying the one who has the gift of prohesy is superior to the one who speaks a tongue unless the tongue speaker also has the gift of interpretation (not necessarily his own tongue)? "Own tongue" is not what the passage says.
Just a thought,
RefrusI
 
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Mathetes the kerux

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Hmm, does it actually say that he can interpret his own tongue, or is it saying the one who has the gift of prohesy is superior to the one who speaks a tongue unless the tongue speaker also has the gift of interpretation (not necessarily his own tongue)? "Own tongue" is not what the passage says.
Just a thought,
RefrusI
Perhaps . . . but the thought flow seems pretty evident that he is interpreting his own tongue . . .

if Paul had wished to express the thought that you have put forth . . . I think he could have been pretty clear about it and not conflated the thought. He seems to be pretty clear about everything else in this passage . . . no vastly deep theological treatises . . . just good ol application.
 
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John 10:10

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Why not let the Scriptures speak for themselves, and then let those who speak in tongues share with those who do not speak in tongues what the gift of tongues means Scripturally?

When those who do not speak in tongues try to explain to those who do speak in tongues what tongues are all about, I have found they "generally" do not have a correct Scriptural understanding of how the continuing gift of tongues is applicable - both in the church and in the personal life of the Spirit-filled Christian.

Blessings
 
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Mathetes the kerux

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Why not let the Scriptures speak for themselves, and then let those who speak in tongues share with those who do not speak in tongues what the gift of tongues means Scripturally?

When those who do not speak in tongues try to explain to those who do speak in tongues what tongues are all about, I have found they "generally" do not have a correct Scriptural understanding of how the continuing gift of tongues is applicable - both in the church and in the personal life of the Spirit-filled Christian.

Blessings
Uhh . . . I do speak in tongues . . . have for years now.
 
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amadeus2

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Hmm, does it actually say that he can interpret his own tongue, or is it saying the one who has the gift of prohesy is superior to the one who speaks a tongue unless the tongue speaker also has the gift of interpretation (not necessarily his own tongue)? "Own tongue" is not what the passage says.
Just a thought,
RefrusI
I have seen both: a person who gave both the message and the interpretation or where the two things were done by two different individuals.
 
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amadeus2

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Truly



My statement about the perusal of the text presumes faith (my application was for the believer) . . . so the same is not true for an atheist . . . one does not always just read the Scriptures and suddenly come to faith.

I think that we agree, but I would add here:

"So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." Rom 10:17

If one reads the Bible with no willingness to admit that it might also be the Word of God, then to that reader it is NOT the Word of God, but only a book of paper and ink.
As for the canonization of the NT and the 300 approx. years inbetween . . . there is ample evidence that what we have as the NT today was more or less the already in circulation around 100 AD . . . assuming John wrote Rev. around 90 AD . . . the case for a faltering church without the NT becomes weak. What happened at the ratification of the NT was an affirmation of what the Church was already using . . . in lieu of many psuedopigrapha that were popping up (like what the Da Vinci Code is based off of).

I agree that the Church never became weak. What was weak were some offshoots of the Church which called themselves the Church but disagreed with the Church. Without knowing all of the history, I believe that this happened (the offshooting or going off on tangents) because that is the nature of carnal man and it is certainly suggested by some of Pauls's epistles. Deciding which groups or individuals were part of the offshoot and which ones were of the Church raises teh same questions that separate people into denominations today.
As for the prophetic announcement . . . I am Charismatic/Pentecostal/Reformed (weird huh?) . . . as such I believe that the gift of prophecy is still active . . . as such . . . a true prophetic announcement from God . . . is God's word. One cannot logically subject one "word" of God to another if they are both truly from God.
I do not doubt that God can and does still speak through people. I wouldn't want to limit God in this. However, any pronounce which is from God will not contradict something that He has said as He does not change. This is how an individual can separate something from God from something from man.

The difference between the Scriptures and the prophetic is one of fallibility.

The orthodox understanding of the Scriptures is that they are the ONLY
1. Inspired
2. Infallible
3. Authoritative
Word of God . . . Scripture alone holds this triune position . . .
however, a prophetic word only holds 2 of the 3. If it is a true word from the Lord . . . it is inspired . . . and authoritative . . . but not infallible. This is the picture of prophecy that Paul presents . . . for prophecy, tongues, words of wisdom and knowledge etc. are to be JUDGED. This implies the humanistic element to the prophetic in the NT . . . so while it may not be fallacy (IOW in error) it maintains the potential to be fallible.

If it really is from God it is not fallible. The fallible part you include would cover what I said above about the possibility that the 'words' do not come from God at all, but from man.

Scripture serves as the "cornerstone" if you will . . . it contains the most accurate account of Christ, who is the perfect revelation of God. As such, any subsequent revelation of prophetic nature will conform to what God has already revealed . . . for He will not contradict Himself (hence Paul saying that any prophetic announcement that calls Christ accursed is false).

does this make sense?

We agree. It does make sense.
 
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Mathetes the kerux

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I think that we agree, but I would add here:

"So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." Rom 10:17

If one reads the Bible with no willingness to admit that it might also be the Word of God, then to that reader it is NOT the Word of God, but only a book of paper and ink.


I agree that the Church never became weak. What was weak were some offshoots of the Church which called themselves the Church but disagreed with the Church. Without knowing all of the history, I believe that this happened (the offshooting or going off on tangents) because that is the nature of carnal man and it is certainly suggested by some of Pauls's epistles. Deciding which groups or individuals were part of the offshoot and which ones were of the Church raises teh same questions that separate people into denominations today.

I do not doubt that God can and does still speak through people. I wouldn't want to limit God in this. However, any pronounce which is from God will not contradict something that He has said as He does not change. This is how an individual can separate something from God from something from man.



If it really is from God it is not fallible. The fallible part you include would cover what I said above about the possibility that the 'words' do not come from God at all, but from man.



We agree. It does make sense.
Sweet
 
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RefrusRevlis

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The idea that the languages spoken on the day of Pentecost by the Apostles were not human languages has been argued, because of the use of the different terms "glossa" and "dialektos".
Originally Posted by RefrusRevlis
What do you mean - ecstatic tongues? Are you saying the Apostles spoke in a non-human language but were heard in human language? If so give some support for this.
Refrus

Yep.

The Greek is pretty clear . . . each individual heard the disciples AS A GROUP speaking their own language . . . while at the same time the one next to him heard THE SAME GROUP speaking in their own language.

Like a Chinese man, a Russian, and a Greek walk into a room with a group speaking in tongues . . . the Chinese man hears the WHOLE group speaking Chinese . . . the Russian hears them in Russian . . . and the Greek in Greek . . . AT THE SAME TIME.

This was the miracle of Pentecost . . . for otherwise it was just a bunch o' guys speaking foreign languages . . . and how are strangers to know that they didn't know the language? The speaking of foreign languages in and of themselves can hardly be awe inspiring.

A study of the passage is really important:

4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
The apostles did not speak with one tongue, the Greek is plural (glossai), so there was NOT one language. If they spoke with the same language this could have been stated so, yet it was not.

5 And there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men, from every nation under heaven. 6 And when this sound occurred, the multitude came together, and were confused, because everyone heard them speak in his own language.
Is it to be assumed that because the word "sound" is heard, that this means there was only one language spoken? No. The word "sound" is more probably referring to a combination of the noise of the mighty rushing wind, which would have caught everyone's attention and the simultaneous noise of multiple languages.


So now let's examine the statements:
"for otherwise it was just a bunch o' guys speaking foreign languages . . The speaking of foreign languages in and of themselves can hardly be awe inspiring."

The argument is faulty, as already stated, they spoke in multiple tongues. The fact that EVERY single person present heard the Apostles speak in their own dialect was amazing, especially since the speakers were all from one locality Galilee. That the Jews and proselytes did not each hear ALL of the apostles speak their own language is evidenced by verses 12 and 13:

12 So they were all amazed and perplexed, saying to one another, “Whatever could this mean?”
13 Others mocking said, “They are full of new wine.”

Why the comment about "new wine" unless not every tongue speaker was able to be understood by every person who witnessed it? Apparently the some of the tongue speakers sounded drunk, this hints that they were not all understandable to every listener.​

" and how are strangers to know that they didn't know the language?"

Whether or not the Apostles learned the languages or got them miraculously was not really the point. This was not what was confounding, what was confounding was was that out of the throng of people who randomly arrived there, EVERY SINGLE ONE heard the Apostles speak in their own language. The fact that the Apostles heads appeared to be on fire, was also probably confounding.

There is a "many to many" grammatical correspondence here. By this I mean, the Apostles spoke tongues (many) and the assembled Jews and Proselytes heard their own dialects (many). This disproves the contention that all heard their own language while all the tongue speakers spoke the same tongue.

There is nothing in the Acts account that indicates anything but multiple foreign languages miraculously bestowed by the Holy Spirit and spoken by the Apostles, in accordance with the languages spoken by the audience.

It is now useful to look at some verses in 1 Corinthians 14:

2For he whospeaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God, for no one understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries.

This is obviously talking about a tongue that is not interpreted and by definition a language other than one learned and known by those present. Understands is "akouei" and means:
to be endowed with the faculty of hearing, to attend to, consider what is or has been said, to get by hearing learn, to comprehend, to understand. (taken from Strong's Enhanced Lexicon)


Note: "in the spirit he speaks mysteries": the word "spirit" is not capitalized in this verse. The Greek does not distinguish between spirit and Spirit. There is a big debate in the commentaries I have read about whether this means the person's spirit or the Holy Spirit. Henry Alford in his Greek Testament says:
"..in the spirit (in his spirit, as opposed to his understanding: his spirit is the organ of the Holy Ghost, but his understanding is unfruitful, see vv 14,15)..."


If it is talking about the spirit of the speaker, not the Holy Spirit. This phrase is parallel to verse 14:


14 For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my understanding is unfruitful.

A mystery is something unrevealed, something unaccessible without revelation. The spirit of the tongue speaker (or indeed the Spirit) is not able to communicate to others, it is unfruitful if the tongue is not interpreted.
Alford, says in commenting on this verse:
"When I pray in a tongue, my higher being, my spirit, filled with the Holy Ghost, is inflamed with holy desires and rapt in prayer: but my intellectual part, having no matter before it on which its powers can be exercised, bears no fruit to the edification of others..."
Alford makes a distinction between the mind and the spirit, though these terms are sometimes used interchangeably, however, that the mind refers to the more logical part of the "inner man" makes sense. The important part in Alford's quote is the identification that the unfruitfulness refers to the lack of productivity of the tongue speaker's mind in relation to the edification of others.

15 What is the conclusion then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will also pray with the understanding. I will sing with the spirit, and I will also sing with the understanding.

Once again, the question is, to what does the spirit refer in this passage. Is it the Holy Spirit or the person's spirit?
Some ways spirit is used:
2 Tim 1:7
For God has not given us a spirit of fear, but of power and of love and of a sound mind


It is interesting that spirit of fear and sound mind are considered to be opposites in this passage.

Ephesians 4:23 "...and be renewed in the spirit of your mind, "


The combination of spirit and understanding is necessary; we might say "understandability" as the import of having a "productive understanding".




19 yet in the church I would rather speak five words with my understanding, that I may teach others also, than ten thousand words in a tongue.

This shows that the understanding is not merely the understanding of the one speaking, but speech that is understandable to others. The edification of the church is dependent upon them hearing the words of God and understanding them.


3 But he who prophesies speaks edification and exhortation and comfort to men. 4 He who speaks in a tongue edifies himself, but he who prophesies edifies the church.


The tongue speaker edifies himself, edifies (oikodomee) is defined as: (the act of) building, building up, metaphorically edifying, edification. The act of one who promotes another’s growth in Christian wisdom, piety, happiness, holiness.


5 I wish you all spoke with tongues, but even more that you prophesied; for he who prophesies is greater than he who speaks with tongues, unless indeed he interprets, that the church may receive edification.

Paul may seem to be criticizing the gift of tongues, but here he clears up any misunderstanding on the matter. He points out that the person who speaks in tongues is lesser than the prophet, as the prophet's message is able to be understood. As a person the prophet would be greater than the tongue speaker, unless that person could also interpret the tongues. The question is, whose tongues?It is inferred that this means interprets his own tongue, but it is not necessarily the case. If he could interpret the tongues of others, he would be one who could reveal mysteries. If he could interpret anyones tongues he would be able to edify the church and thus greater than a tongues speaker.

6 But now, brethren, if I come to you speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you unless I speak to you either by revelation, by knowledge, by prophesying, or by teaching?

The content of the message is dealt with here. Unless the tongue spoken did one of the four things it was useless for edification. These four revelation, by knowledge, by prophesying and teaching all indicate intelligibility.

There are two important facets to tongue speaking: (1) the message being spoken (the content) and the (2)intelligibility of the words spoken. If either was obscured, the edification of the church would not occur. The purpose of this response is not to deal with the first point, but the second. It is sufficient to say words not easy to be understood do not edify.

9 So likewise you, unless you utter by the tongue words easy to understand, how will it be known what is spoken? For you will be speaking into the air. 10 There are, it may be, so many kinds of languages in the world, and none of them is without significance.

The word tongue hear refers to the physical organ, not the unknown language. It is saying that unless my speech ( what I utter with the tongue) is able to be understood by the hearer, I will be speaking into the air (vainly). The importance of being understood is made clear here.

13 Therefore let him who speaks in a tongue pray that he may interpret.
Does this mean that he should desire that he personally interpret his own tongue, or that his message is interpreted? Does it mean that he should pray to receive in addition to the gift of a tongue the ability to interpret? Does it mean when praying in a tongue, let the purpose of the prayer be that he might receive the ability to interpret?


Whatever the meaning, it is clear that interpretation of tongues was to be desired more than tongues.


16 Otherwise, if you bless with the spirit, how will he who occupies the place of the uninformed say “Amen”at your giving of thanks, since he does not understand what you say? 17 For you indeed give thanks well, but the other is not edified.


To bless with the spirit means with the spirit ONLY, i.e. without the understanding.


23 Therefore if the whole church comes together in one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those who are uninformed or unbelievers, will they not say that you are out of your mind?

Hearing ALL the languages at once would result in the same kind of response as seen in Acts 2:13
"Others mocking said, These men are full of new wine."

24 But if all prophesy, and an unbeliever or an uninformed person comes in, he is convinced by all, he is convicted by all. 25 And thus the secrets of his heart are revealed; and so, falling down on his face, he will worship God and report that God is truly among you.

The unbeliever, who came into the worship assembly was convinced by what he heard, Romans 10:17 tells us that faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God.

27 If anyone speaks in a tongue, let there be two or at the most three, each in turn, and let one interpret. 28 But if there is no interpreter, let him keep silent in church, and let him speak to himself and to God.

Without an interpreter present, the tongue speaker was to keep silent in the church. This does not mean speak the tongue quietly, as some kind of prayer language in church. The word "silent" is sigao which means: "to keep silence, hold one’s peace to be kept in silence, be concealed." The phrase "and let him speak to himself and God" means either at another time (other than the worship service when no-one is there, and where only God can hear) or it means let him "speak" - commune with God silently during the service (i.e. not speak the tongue at all) during the church service. Another option is that both are meant. The use of the Greek word laleo, which seems to indicate the first option. Whatever is meant audible expressions of the uninterpreted tongue in the worship service is not permitted.

In all this, the idea of a special speech language apart from actual real human languages is not supported, it has to be forcibly be read into the text.

Neither Acts 2 or 1 Corinthians 14 support the idea of tongues being a non-human language.
 
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RefrusRevlis

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I realise in my last post I did not specifically deal with Acts 2:6 (I had to cut the post down as it was over 15000 characters at first, anyhow)

And when this sound occurred, the multitude came together, and were confused, because everyone heard them speak in his own language.http://www.christianforums.com/newreply.php?do=newreply&noquote=1&p=35690216#_ftn2

If this was all the Bible said on the matter, then Matheetees ho Keerux might be right in saying:

The Greek is pretty clear . . . each individual heard the disciples AS A GROUP speaking their own language . . . while at the same time the one next to him heard THE SAME GROUP speaking in their own language.

Like a Chinese man, a Russian, and a Greek walk into a room with a group speaking in tongues . . . the Chinese man hears the WHOLE group speaking Chinese . . . the Russian hears them in Russian . . . and the Greek in Greek . . . AT THE SAME TIME.

However, the word "tongues" in verse 4 is plural, and this refutes the assertion that the Apostles only spoke one language/tongue but were heard in many. It could well be that multiple Apostles spoke the same language at the same time or one. It is also possible that each apostle spoke multiple languages (though I'm not saying each apostle spoke more than one at once). Even if the word tongues wasn't plural in Acts 2:4, this would explain the use of the plural word "them" in Acts 2:6.

Refrus
 
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John 10:10

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A study of the passage is really important:

In all this, the idea of a special speech language apart from actual real human languages is not supported, it has to be forcibly be read into the text.

Neither Acts 2 or 1 Corinthians 14 support the idea of tongues being a non-human language.
I guess we need to remove I Cor 13:1 from our Bibles,

If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but have love, I have not become a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal.
 
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RefrusRevlis

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I guess we need to remove I Cor 13:1 from our Bibles,

If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but have love, I have not become a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal.

Nope, just understand that Paul is speaking hypothetically, not admitting to the possibility, i.e. with the meaning "Even if I were to speak every language in heaven and on earth.. (but have not love)"

Compare how Paul says "understand all mysteries, have all knowledge, have all faith, bestow all my goods..."

It is taking the verse out of context to make it infer "angelic languages" as being something people can speak.

Anyway, anytime we actually read accounts of angels speaking, they speak in human languages.

Refrus
 
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MarkEvan

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7Now to each one the manifestation of the Spirit is given for the common good. 8To one there is given through the Spirit the message of wisdom, to another the message of knowledge by means of the same Spirit, 9to another faith by the same Spirit, to another gifts of healing by that one Spirit, 10to another miraculous powers, to another prophecy, to another distinguishing between spirits, to another speaking in different kinds of tongues,[a] and to still another the interpretation of tongues.[b] 11All these are the work of one and the same Spirit, and he gives them to each one, just as he determines.
12The body is a unit, though it is made up of many parts; and though all its parts are many, they form one body. So it is with Christ. 13For we were all baptized by[c] one Spirit into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, slave or free—and we were all given the one Spirit to drink.
14Now the body is not made up of one part but of many. 15If the foot should say, "Because I am not a hand, I do not belong to the body," it would not for that reason cease to be part of the body. 16And if the ear should say, "Because I am not an eye, I do not belong to the body," it would not for that reason cease to be part of the body. 17If the whole body were an eye, where would the sense of hearing be? If the whole body were an ear, where would the sense of smell be? 18But in fact God has arranged the parts in the body, every one of them, just as he wanted them to be. 19If they were all one part, where would the body be? 20As it is, there are many parts, but one body.
21The eye cannot say to the hand, "I don't need you!" And the head cannot say to the feet, "I don't need you!" 22On the contrary, those parts of the body that seem to be weaker are indispensable, 23and the parts that we think are less honorable we treat with special honor. And the parts that are unpresentable are treated with special modesty, 24while our presentable parts need no special treatment. But God has combined the members of the body and has given greater honor to the parts that lacked it, 25so that there should be no division in the body, but that its parts should have equal concern for each other. 26If one part suffers, every part suffers with it; if one part is honored, every part rejoices with it. 27Now you are the body of Christ, and each one of you is a part of it. 28And in the church God has appointed first of all apostles, second prophets, third teachers, then workers of miracles, also those having gifts of healing, those able to help others, those with gifts of administration, and those speaking in different kinds of tongues. 29Are all apostles? Are all prophets? Are all teachers? Do all work miracles? 30Do all have gifts of healing? Do all speak in tongues[d]? Do all interpret? 31But eagerly desire[e] the greater gifts.
And now I will show you the most excellent way.


No all in the NT did not speak in tongues, if they did then the above verses have no meaning and lie, since they clearly state that "not all speak in tongues," that was in the days of Paul.

Mark :)
 
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John 10:10

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Originally Posted by John 10:10
Why not let the Scriptures speak for themselves, and then let those who speak in tongues share with those who do not speak in tongues what the gift of tongues means Scripturally?

When those who do not speak in tongues try to explain to those who do speak in tongues what tongues are all about, I have found they "generally" do not have a correct Scriptural understanding of how the continuing gift of tongues is applicable - both in the church and in the personal life of the Spirit-filled Christian.

Blessings
 
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