I want to ask a question, but so as not to further derail the other thread which is floundering, I decided it was best to start a new thread . .
I am trying to understand the doctrine of Sola Scriptura in light of historical Christianity.
In my wanderings, I found this quote:
Thiis quote is from a time shortly after the various councils of hte late 4th century and early 5th century met and agreed on the canon of scripture for both the Old and New Testament. .
It shows that it was undestood that the Canon was closed, and that the real need for an itnerpreter of the Scriptures, the Church.
The reasons given then are the same reasons the Catholics and Orthodox give now . .
Does this not show that even at the time the canon was declared, that it was recognized that an Interpretor was needed to avoid error, and that the Interpretor was the Church? How does one who believes in Sola Scriptura reconcile this?
Peace in Him!
I am trying to understand the doctrine of Sola Scriptura in light of historical Christianity.
In my wanderings, I found this quote:
St. Vincent of Lerins wrote (in 434 A.D.):"Here, it may be, someone will ask, 'Since the canon of Scripture is complete, and is in itself abundantly sufficient, what need is there to join to it the interpretation of the Church?' The answer is that because of the very depth of Scripture all men do not place one identical interpretation on it. The statements of the same writer are explained by different men in different ways, so much so that it seems almost possible to extract from it as many opinions as there are men....Therefore, because of the intricacies of error, which is so multiform, there is great need for the laying down of a rule for the exposition of Prophets and Apostles in accordance with the standard of the interpretation of the Church Catholic."
Thiis quote is from a time shortly after the various councils of hte late 4th century and early 5th century met and agreed on the canon of scripture for both the Old and New Testament. .
It shows that it was undestood that the Canon was closed, and that the real need for an itnerpreter of the Scriptures, the Church.
The reasons given then are the same reasons the Catholics and Orthodox give now . .
Does this not show that even at the time the canon was declared, that it was recognized that an Interpretor was needed to avoid error, and that the Interpretor was the Church? How does one who believes in Sola Scriptura reconcile this?
Peace in Him!