- Oct 12, 2020
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You believe that the mass resurrection of believers that will occur at the second coming is the first resurrection, right? That does not line up with the scripture that says Christ's resurrection is the first resurrection. That's my point and I don't think it should be a hard point to understand.I'm not seeing where anything I said would make that untrue.
Yep.Christ rose first, and He obviously rose in the same type of resurrection the following do---they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life(John 5:29)---and not a resurrection like this instead---they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation(John 5:29). No one could possibly think those are the same type of resurrection. By 'type' I'm meaning what the event pertains to. One event in John 5:29 pertains to waking to life, while the other one pertains to waking to damnation.
You are taking that completely out of context. You're really showing your lack of discernment here. That is not talking about the dead in Christ rising first before the dead who are not in Christ are resurrected. The resurrection of unbelievers is not even mentioned in 1 Thessalonians 4, so they have nothing to do with what Paul was talking about there.1 Thessalonians 4 alone already proves the dead in Christ rise first. Why would this not be the first resurrection?
When it says the dead in Christ rise first it means that they must first rise from the dead before they join those who are alive and remain in being caught up to meet the Lord in the air. That is what the dead in Christ rising first means.
Ugh. Did you forget about Christ's resurrection and how scripture says that was the first resurrection (Acts 26:23, 1 Cor 15:20;22, Col 1:18, Rev 1:5)?It couldn't possibly be meaning when the rest of the dead live again after the thousand years, the 2nd resurrection, the final resurrection. Because if it does it means that the dead in Christ never had part in the first resurrection since they can't have part in the first resurrection and also have part in the 2nd resurrection involving the rest of the dead after the thousand years.
David, can you please tell me how you interpret this verse:
Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
Do you believe that the second death has no power over anyone who doesn't have part in the first resurrection or do you believe it only doesn't have power over those who have part in the first resurrection? Doesn't this verse give the impression that having part in the first resurrection is a requirement in order for the second death to not have power over you? I believe it does.
Do you actually think that this is a valid argument? If it was then I could make a similar argument by saying I can't figure out why Premils would think that the most important resurrection of all, with no exception, that John would neglect to even mention Christ's resurrection in Revelation 20? Would you find that argument to be a convincing one? I doubt it. So, I don't find yours to be convincing, either. Please stop wasting time making arguments like this that prove nothing.For the life of me I can't figure out why Amils would think the most important resurrection of all, besides Christ's, meaning the bodily resurrection of the saints, that John would neglect to even mention this resurrection in Revelation 20?
Yeah, we just see it as referring to the most important resurrection that has ever, or will ever, occur. That's all.Per Amil the first resurrection isn't meaning that resurrection.
If the first resurrection refers to the bodily resurrection of the saved then where is the most important resurrection of all, Christ's resurrection, mentioned?John only wrote about two resurrections in ch 20 though, not 3. If the first resurrection in ch 20 isn't the bodily resurrection of the saved, then where in ch 20 is that resurrection mentioned?
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