Scripturally, what's wrong with polygamy?

[Apollo Rhetor]

From a Scriptural viewpoint, what is the objection made against polygamy? I have been unable to find any condemnation of it in either the old or new testament.

When I say polygamy, I should really say polygyny, since I'm not interested in whether wives can have more than one husband (I don't think they ever should, but that's not the topic at hand).

I found an older thread on the topic here, which you'll find one reply by me. I'm looking for more details though, specifically where the new testament rejection of polygamy comes from. I've heard some say that it was like divorce - God tolerated it because of the stubborness of their hearts, but now rejects it - though I can find no confirmation of that anywhere.

I suggest you read through this quickly anyway, it's pretty short:
http://www.christianforums.com/t20113
If you don't read it, at least read my post which I'm assuming you have, as it gives a little more details on my thoughts:
http://www.christianforums.com/showthread.php?p=862877&postcount=17

The reason I started a new thread is because the old one is almost a year old, was in a forum I thought was inappropriate, and because I wanted to ask more specifically about Scripture.

 

[Debi]

From a Scriptural viewpoint, what is the objection made against polygamy? I have been unable to find any condemnation of it in either the old or new testament.


I found an older thread on the topic here, which you'll find one reply by me. I'm looking for more details though, specifically where the new testament rejection of polygamy comes from. I've heard some say that it was like divorce - God tolerated it because of the stubborness of their hearts, but now rejects it - though I can find no confirmation of that anywhere.

I suggest you read through this quickly anyway, it's pretty short:
http://www.christianforums.com/t20113
If you don't read it, at least read my post which I'm assuming you have, as it gives a little more details on my thoughts:
http://www.christianforums.com/showthread.php?p=862877&postcount=17

God will will not stop man from sinning. It was never in God's plan to have more than one wife. Yes, many men in the OT took more than one wife, an example of man in his lust. Gen 2:24

1Ti 3:2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

1Ti 3:12 Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well. 

Titus 1:6 If any be blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly.


You quoted Solomon and how he took many wives. The scripture is used to show just how lustful man is in his sins and he will disobey God given opporunity to satisfy his own lust. Solomon also went after riches when God told him He would make him richer than any King, which was another problem Solomon had. Solomons sins turned him away from God.


I cor 7:2.....Let every man have his OWN wife ( not wives) and let every woman have her OWN husband (not husbands)..


Matt 19:8 He Saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: BUT FROM THE BEGINNING IT WAS NOT SO. v9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his WIFE, except it be for fornication and shall marry another, committeth adultery; and whos marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

If you notice in the verse, it does not refer to one man having many wives, Jesus is speaking to a collective group and use the term "wives" speaking to each man, not one man. Furthermore, Jesus states "put away HIS WIFE" not plural.

It is the lust of a man's heart to want more than one wife. Pologamy was never endorsed by God. Marriage is a covenant between two people, a man and a woman (as it was in the beginning) It is sacred before God. Just as the Bride of Christ, We make one, not more than one wife.

The heart of man is sinful even to the point of manipulating God's word to justify his sins.

 

[Apollo Rhetor]

Thanks for your response, but I think your approach is a bit backwards. Polygamy was never condemned in the old testament, and was practiced by some of the most pious men that have ever lived...ever.

Christians now pronounce often that polygamy was once permitted by God because of the stubborness of the Israelite's hearts - just like divorce, but now we no longer accept it.

What I want to know is where that view comes from? Jesus explicitly mentioned about divorce, but never about polygamy. Nor was there a problem of polygamy in the early church to warrent the mention of "one wife". I think it's almost certain that those verses were not tallking about a prohibition of polygamy. The site below suggests a likely meaning:
http://www.truthbearer.org/doctrine/past-one-wife-barrier/1/

I'm not looking for verses that explicitly support polygamy, but rather verses or Scripture in general that shows how polygamy is no longer permitted.

Also, sorry about the misunderstanding but the last reply on that other thread is not mine - I did not mention Solomon. My reply is no longer the last one on that thread Just look for the one by "Tyreth".

 

[Debi]

Thanks for your response, but I think your approach is a bit backwards. Polygamy was never condemned in the old testament, and was practiced by some of the most pious men that have ever lived...ever.

Christians now pronounce often that polygamy was once permitted by God because of the stubborness of the Israelite's hearts - just like divorce, but now we no longer accept it.

What I want to know is where that view comes from? Jesus explicitly mentioned about divorce, but never about polygamy. Nor was there a problem of polygamy in the early church to warrent the mention of "one wife". I think it's almost certain that those verses were not tallking about a prohibition of polygamy. The site below suggests a likely meaning:
http://www.truthbearer.org/doctrine/past-one-wife-barrier/1/

I'm not looking for verses that explicitly support polygamy, but rather verses or Scripture in general that shows how polygamy is no longer permitted.

Also, sorry about the misunderstanding but the last reply on that other thread is not mine - I did not mention Solomon. My reply is no longer the last one on that thread Just look for the one by "Tyreth".

Sorry for being "backwards" I am new and this was the last, or so I thought. However, you are still justify polygamy when it was never endorsed by God. Polygamy was instituted by men because of lust in their hearts. It was always designed as One wife/One husband. Seems you are "overlooking" . If you look at the verse I gave, they never stated that polygamy was what God designed. Even Jesus addressed it and never ever did he mentioned that "in the beginning you could have more wives and God has changed that to one". He stated "in the beginning" man was never to divorce his wife. not wives.

A little twisting of the scriptures will never make it "right" before God.

Trying to justify that it was "of God" and now looking for a verse that now "God forbids" is ( in your words) backwards, you will not find verses that states it is not longer permitted because it was against God from the beginning. It appears that polygamist would like to overlook and avoid other verses that state that only one wife was ever permitted by God and look at the ways of sinful men ( whether they were it was practiced by "pious men" or not. To do things God's way, you should look to what scriptures state and line up with that. Since many of our laws were governed by laws given in the bible, you may want to ask why polygamy is illegal. If the marriages can not be registered with the state after the first marriage, then it is illegal.

any hoo, I will try and find the correct thread.



Debi

 

[swordman]

Greetings.

There are many reasons given as to why God is allegedly against a man having more than one wife. One really needs to ask if those reasons line up with the word of God, or are they some form of socially engineered theology that has enjoyed historical longevity regardless of the merits, or lack of merits, of the arguments put forth.

I have never found any statement made by the Lord that says all men are limited to having only one wife. Many point at imagry such as Adam's having been given only one wife in paradise. Is that a legitimate measure to which all other men are limited? Adam also ran around naked, but we do not emulate that "imagry". Elijah was given power that was not given to Abraham before him. Based upon the "Adam" argument, Abraham was short-changed by God for not giving to him what He would eventually give to Elijah many years later. Adam having one wife speaks of all mankind having come forth from the same parents. In other words, we are all of one blood. (Racists do not like this at all.) If God ever intended for Adam's having one wife to be some sort of unspoken, unwritten rule for all other men to be limited to only one wife, then He certainly was silent about it when confronting the Patriarchs on numerous occasions.

Then there is the Law that not only commanded polygyny in one particular instance, but actually made governing provision for a man to have more than one wife. That one goes mostly ignored by people since that was "of the Law." How many of you still believe in tithing?

Some point at Titus and 1 Timothy in the New Testament, which speak directly to leadership, not all believers in general. The crux of those three verses lies within one little pesky Greek word "mia," translated as "one" rather than "first." It is a fact that "mia" CAN be translated as "one" or "first." The gramatical construct of those three verses are the same as those verses where "mia" is translated as "first." All this means is that by putting "first" in the place of "one" in those three verses, they would actually make more sense in the overall text than for Paul to suddenly address polygyny out of the blue without any precedent whatsoever. With "first wife" being the phraseology, he would then be understood to be speaking against DIVORCE within the ranks of the leadership. That is not comfortable these days because of all the divorced "pastors" and "elders" in our midst.

Then there is the fingering of the "singular" use of words in key verses. Well, if that argument were truly legitimate, which it is not, as is known by even a first year theology student, then we would all be limited to having only one son, and only one grandson. This is also one of may arguments that those using it would never allow a cultist to get away with, so why try it themsleves? Legitimate theology must always involve a consistent application of rules that do not shift and chage at the whim of the individual, or the group. If one were to observe a football game where the rules shifted and changed like they do in the minds of many people concerning theology, the observere would see nothing but total chaos on the field. It would be impossible to determine the winner, and yet the untrained mind will always seek after any edge it can find in order to win for the sake of winning, regardless of the facts involved.

Therefore, I too would like to see if anyone can come up with a legitimate verse or passage of verses, in context, that clearly address any specific prohibition against a man, any man, having more than one wife.

Thanks

In Christ Jesus

Don

 

[swordman]

Debi said:

Polygamy was instituted by men because of lust in their hearts.

Hello, Debi.

I would like to ask you something if I may:

Gen. 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

Now, if Abraham was guilty of having lust in his heart, then why did the Lord give such a glowing review such as this after Abraham's death?

Don

 

[Debi]

Greetings.

I have never found any statement made by the Lord that says all men are limited to having only one wife.

Don, Where has God stated that man is entitlted to more than one wife.?

If God ever intended for Adam's having one wife to be some sort of unspoken, unwritten rule for all other men to be limited to only one wife, then He certainly was silent about it when confronting the Patriarchs on numerous occasions.

Neither God nor Jesus was silent about it. You reference the term "mia" in Tim that word is translated as "one" not "first". You do realize that one word was used to represent many words? Jesus did not spefically tell us too stop offering up incense and unblemished lambs, but if you read the written word, you can summazied that Jesus is the scarfice and we don't have to make offers. Paul had to make that clear to the Jews that were coverted during the beginning of the gospel of grace, just as it is revisited about wives and adultery by both Paul and Jesus

It is obvious, no matter what truth of God's word by scriptures you are given none will not be accepted as evidence, so why do you ask? Giving information of the scriptures to someone that will not accept it is futile. To say that the translators made an error in the translation of God's Written Word (by inspiriation of the Holy Spirit) is to imply that God is not able to perserve the Word.

However, I am curious, What law is it that God states man can have more than one wife, and the other question is since God set the government over us. We are to adhere to the governing body, so if that body tells you polygamy is illegal, you do it anyway? and please give scripture for your stance, because I do not recall "thou shall have as many wives as thou pleases"

And why is it so important for a man to have more than one wife? God does not need you to replenish the earth? Does this bring Glory to God? I am just curious.

 

[Apollo Rhetor]

Don, Where has God stated that man is entitlted to more than one wife.?

I'd like to draw this back on topic...in the old testament we have three facts:
1. Polygamy is nowhere condemned
2. Many of the most pious and righteous men practiced it
3. They were never condemned by God

The argument given is that God once tolerated polygamy as He did divorce, but now that we know better, He has declared polygamy unacceptable along with divorce.

I agree that divorce is unacceptable - but where do we find God or Jesus' condemnation of polygamy?

Regarding the verses which talk about wife as singular for men, that does not seem like a prohibition to me. Polygamy was not considered a problem in the early church (whether it was not practiced or practiced but not worried about I don't know), so it seems strange these subtle prohibitions would be introduced.

It seems to me far more likely that wife is talked about in the singular sense since 99.99% of men will not practice polygamy.

I want to know on what basis the prohibition of polygamy is based on? When did God ever declare that this which He once permitted is now unacceptable? I'm not looking for verses that permit polygamy any more than verses that permit an older man marrying a younger woman - it's not explicetly mentioned, it was just practiced and never condemned.

And why is it so important for a man to have more than one wife? God does not need you to replenish the earth? Does this bring Glory to God? I am just curious.

I can think of a few reasons, and one is populating the earth. Another is during times of war, the male population drops significantly, leaving many unmarried women who would rather share a husband than have no husband at all. Then there is the smaller number of male believers than female believers in many churches.
I agree with Augustine that polygamy should never be used with the excuse of satisfying uncontrollable lusts. Polygamy should not be because a man finds his lusts run past one woman, but rather more righteous reasons such as producing more children to build up his (the man's) name.
Though these concepts of family are very foreign in general in western society.

Anyway, again, I'm not interested in supporting polygamy, that was already permitted in the old testament. I want to see why people think that has changed.

 

[swordman]

Debi said:

Don, Where has God stated that man is entitlted to more than one wife.?

Hello, Debi. The person who started this thread, and myself, were not making issue of God's declaring man's "entitlement" to more than one wife. Entitlement is an entirely different facet that was never brought up so far as I have seen.

Neither God nor Jesus was silent about it. You reference the term "mia" in Tim that word is translated as "one" not "first".

Yes, it is. The translators chose to render it that way for their own reasons. I was simply pointing out that it could be translated either way. By translating it as "one," they have therefore created problems in the text. I will make mention of one particular problem for the sake of your further study: If the leaders MUST BE THE HUSBAND OF ONE WIFE, then he MUST BE MARRIED, and to only one wife. If that is the case, then Paul clearly disqualified himself from leadership. Does that sound right to you? If you think I am wrong, then read those three verses for what they say, and I think you will have to agree that this is a legitimate problem. I am not here to throw egg in your face, only to ask that the word of God be read for what it says without all the coloring of social and cultural dogma.

You do realize that one word was used to represent many words? Jesus did not spefically tell us too stop offering up incense and unblemished lambs, but if you read the written word, you can summazied that Jesus is the scarfice and we don't have to make offers.

Understood. I agree about the sacrifice being fulfilled in Christ Jesus. However, the apostles also dealt directly with this issue without mincing words, so this is really a non-issue as well.

Paul had to make that clear to the Jews that were coverted during the beginning of the gospel of grace, just as it is revisited about wives and adultery by both Paul and Jesus

So you admit that Paul dealt directly with the fulfillment. Again, I agree with you. So, where do you see the issue of polygyny being dealt with in a similarly direct manner? That is what the author is seeking.

Also, if a man having more than one wife were truly adultery, then we must expect the Patriatchs who practiced polygyny to be cast into Hell for having died in that "sin." Remember, God said that adulterers will not enter into His Kingdom, but perish. The Biblical definition of adultery is a man desiring/having sexual relations with another man's wife. Nowhere is a plurality of wives defined as adultery within the pages of the Bible. If you know of something, then please share with us.

It is obvious, no matter what truth of God's word by scriptures you are given none will not be accepted as evidence, so why do you ask? Giving information of the scriptures to someone that will not accept it is futile.

That is a very emotional approach, and it is fatalistic. I think we can do better than this. Fortunately, emotion does not provide an answer to much of anything. If we cannot trust God's word for what it says, then we are holding onto an authority that cannot be trusted. If there is an absence of proof within the scriptures for what one is saying, then emotionalism is not at all a good substitute for good scholarship and being consistent with what is written.

To say that the translators made an error in the translation of God's Written Word (by inspiriation of the Holy Spirit) is to imply that God is not able to perserve the Word.

Wait a minute, Debi. Who said that our translations are infallible? They all disagree with one another in many places. This is common knowledge. If you ever read the original statement from the King James translators, for instance, you will see that they never laid claim to their translation being infallible. They clearly stated that there was lots of room for error. I do not know of any translation that makes any claim to infallibility. God's word IS infallible, not translations.

However, I am curious, What law is it that God states man can have more than one wife, and the other question is since God set the government over us.

Tell you what, Debi, first you answer my question in that other post concerning your blanket statement, the implications of which made Abraham a man with lust in his heart for having more than one wife, and then I will answer your question here.

We are to adhere to the governing body, so if that body tells you polygamy is illegal, you do it anyway? and please give scripture for your stance, because I do not recall "thou shall have as many wives as thou pleases"

Well, Debi, the only law that exists is that which makes it illegal for a man to acquire more than one marriage "license" at a time. Also, there is no law that requires a man married in God's eyes to get a license from the State. It is also true that God's definition of marriage does not include the requirement for a license from the State, ceremonies, vows, exchanges, acknowledgments, etc., etc. If having a license were what made a marriage, then we are all in serious trouble because the divorce rate alone speaks of the failure of a piece of paper from City Hall to make marriage, much less to make them a success.

Also, nobody said that God declared "thou shall have as many wives as thou please." That is yet another of many straw men you are casting into the wind. Please do not put words into other people's mouths that they did not utter. Any mature believer knows that we cannot cast responsibility aside so easily. Nobody here has remotely suggested that from what I have seen.

And why is it so important for a man to have more than one wife? God does not need you to replenish the earth? Does this bring Glory to God? I am just curious.

I do not recall anyone saying that it is important for a man to have more than one wife. The author is simply questioning a dogma that has enjoyed historical precedent, although it really has no scriptual backing from what I have seen. You talked of there being verses that deal with this, but I have not yet seen you mention even one reference. Also, a plurality of wives had nothing to do with "replenishing the earth," unless you can show me something that I have missed.

Please answer my other question concerning the implication of Abraham being labeled as a man with lust in his heart for having more than one wife. I would really like to see where God's word lends any weight to this claim you made.

Thanks for your typing time.

In Christ Jesus

Don

 

[SimplyMe]

However, you are still justify polygamy when it was never endorsed by God. Polygamy was instituted by men because of lust in their hearts. It was always designed as One wife/One husband. Debi

Actually, I'm not sure that is correct. I've often heard the example of King David used to show how polygamy was condemned by God, yet if you look at the scriptures it seems the opposite was the case.

"And I gave thee thy master’s house, and thy master’s wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things." 2 Samuel 12:8 KJV

This clearly implies that it was God that gave David his wives and we know from the OT that David did indeed have many wives. You could even make an arguement that God endorsed polygamy as he gave many wives to David, and these unions were blessed by Nathan the prophet. It even seems to imply that God would have given David more wives. Where David went wrong was in coveting his friends wife, which led to murder.

"Wherefore hast thou despised the commandment of the LORD, to do evil in his sight? thou hast killed Uriah the Hittite with the sword, and hast taken his wife to be thy wife...." 2 Samuel 12:9 KJV

You can make a similar argument with Solomon, though it isn't spelled out quite as clearly as with David. But there is an implication that all wives to the righteous Kings of Israel were blessed and approved of by God though the prophet. Solomon ends up making the mistake of marrying a woman who God tells him not to marry, as well as other sins. From what we can see in the Old Testament, it would appear that polygamy is (or at least was) endorsed by God.

 

[layne]

I think God was more lenient about this issue in the OT because He wanted the earth populated. A man can make several women pregnant, and it doesn’t work that way for one woman and several men. For example, Jacob had a couple of wives and also some children with their maidservants. God told him in Genesis 22:17 I will surely bless you and make your descendants as numerous as the stars in the sky and as the sand on the seashore.

 

[Debi]

I think God was more lenient about this issue in the OT because He wanted the earth populated. A man can make several women pregnant, and it doesn’t work that way for one woman and several men. For example, Jacob had a couple of wives and also some children with their maidservants. God told him in Genesis 22:17 I will surely bless you and make your descendants as numerous as the stars in the sky and as the sand on the seashore.

That blessing has nothing to do with him being married to more than one woman or having children with more than one woman. It has to do with God opening salvation to the Gentile and those gaining salvation by the gospel of Grace and believing in the birth, death and reserruction of Chriist. Nice try

BTW, I have gotten the other post I just have not had the opportunity to respond because it will probably get lengthy. But I am sure even with scripture those that insist that God never rejected polygamy will not even see it with scriptures.

Has anyone read chapter 11 of I kings. Solomen did evil in the sight of the Lord and having many wives is the beginning of the statement.

Even if God "had" allowed them to have many wives, which He did not, We are under a new testament and it states one wife. Even Jesus stated "in the beginning" God made them male and female, and for this reason two shall become one, not become one with EACH woman you marry. One= unity


Debi

 

[Apollo Rhetor]

Hi, I'm looking forward to your reply so I can hopefully understand why mainstream Christianity reject polygyny.

Has anyone read chapter 11 of I kings. Solomen did evil in the sight of the Lord and having many wives is the beginning of the statement.

Yes, it starts off as "But King Solomon loved many foreign women, as well as the daughter of Pharaoh: women of the Moabites, Ammonites, Edomites, Sidonians, and Hittites" (vs1)

Solomon's fall from God has *always* been understood as the result of him taking wives from foreign nations, never because he had more than one wife. And it starts off as you pointed out talking about "foreign wives", not just many wives.

God strictly forbade marrying women from other nations precisely because they would cause what happened to Solomon. It's unrelated to polygyny.

 

[layne]

I am of the opinion that God's standpoint on polygamy has changed because social circumstances have changed. My point wasn't about blessings in relation to populating. There are many scriptures in the bible where God tells someone that their offspring will be uncountable, like the dust, or stars, etc. This says to me that God wanted the earth vastly populated. So even if a wife were barren, it was acceptable that the man would have a child with another woman. It was a common social trend back then. People were more concerned about the size of their family and providing for it, as compared to today where many people's priorities lay on money above family. Our population today is also enormous. An infertile wife wouldn't consider having her husband bear a child with another woman, especially when the option of fertility drugs and adoption is available.

 

[swordman]

I think God was more lenient about this issue in the OT because He wanted the earth populated. A man can make several women pregnant, and it doesn’t work that way for one woman and several men. For example, Jacob had a couple of wives and also some children with their maidservants. God told him in Genesis 22:17 I will surely bless you and make your descendants as numerous as the stars in the sky and as the sand on the seashore.

Hello.

One thing I would like to observe, if I may: I do not recall the purpose of polygyny being for the purpose of repopulating the earth. Now, let us look at the flip-side of this statement. God never withdrew His command to populate the earth. The implications of both these observations is pretty clear. So, what exactly was the purpose for a man to have a plurality of wives? Was there any purpose at all? Does there have to be a purpose? Is there a purpose for having just one wife? It looks like the issue of a plurality of wives rests solely within the hearts of the people involved. If they desire an extended family, then they could all become that which they had set their hearts upon, and the Lord made governing provision within His Law for that very thing.

Interesting indeed.

In Christ Jesus

Dr. Don Dean

 

[swordman]

BTW, I have gotten the other post I just have not had the opportunity to respond because it will probably get lengthy. But I am sure even with scripture those that insist that God never rejected polygamy will not even see it with scriptures.

If you present something legitimate, in context, and that is in step with what ALL scripture has to say about this issue, then there should be no problem with everyone agreeing with you. Being negative about other's alleged disagreement with you personally will not at all prove anything.

Has anyone read chapter 11 of I kings. Solomen did evil in the sight of the Lord and having many wives is the beginning of the statement.

I agree with you that Solomon was in violation of God's command against "multiplying" wives to himself. No argument there. I will also say that even having just ONE wife, a man can STILL allow himself to be drawn away into evil, as was the case with Ahab and Jezebel. Many people assume that Solomon was drawn away becasue he had so many wives. Ahab proved that this is not at all the rule, and I would venture to say that there are many living examples of this all around us even today. (I just wanted to throw that in before someone else brought it up.)

Even if God "had" allowed them to have many wives, which He did not, We are under a new testament and it states one wife. Even Jesus stated "in the beginning" God made them male and female, and for this reason two shall become one, not become one with EACH woman you marry. One= unity

I would not say that God ever allowed anyone to have MANY wives. Of course, that also depends on how you personally define "many." How many is "many"?

As for Jesus' statements, the CONTEXT of those statements had to do with divorce, not a plurality of wives. If you are going to point at the singular use of key words words as opposed to the plural, well, in this instance you will be creating quite a mess for yourself, because when you are forced to apply that same rule of interpretation consistently, you will inevitably get into trouble. This is only a caution for you to remain consistent with your rules of interpretation as you apply them to the issue of polygyny. If we can force meaning into the text that is not within the context, then we must also acknowledge the claims of the cults.

In Christ Jesus

Dr. Don Dean

 

[Debi]

Hello.

One thing I would like to observe, if I may: I do not recall the purpose of polygyny being for the purpose of repopulating the earth. Now, let us look at the flip-side of this statement. God never withdrew His command to populate the earth. The implications of both these observations is pretty clear. So, what exactly was the purpose for a man to have a plurality of wives? Was there any purpose at all? Does there have to be a purpose?

Is there a purpose for having just one wife?
Don, this was always God's plan.


It looks like the issue of a plurality of wives rests solely within the hearts of the people involved. If they desire an extended family, then they could all become that which they had set their hearts upon, and the Lord made governing provision within His Law for that very thing.


What are the governing provisions? How can we ignore Jesus stating "in the beginning he made them male and female and for this cause they become one flesh" Not one flesh with each woman he wants to marry?

The same is shown in God's example of the animal put onto the Ark before the flood, two animals one female one male. I would agree, having more than one wife to populate the earth. I would also ask, if it is man's desire to "extend" his family, is that not self serving and selfish?

 

[Debi]

If you present something legitimate, in context, and that is in step with what ALL scripture has to say about this issue, then there should be no problem with everyone agreeing with you. Being negative about other's alleged disagreement with you personally will not at all prove anything.



I agree with you that Solomon was in violation of God's command against "multiplying" wives to himself. No argument there. I will also say that even having just ONE wife, a man can STILL allow himself to be drawn away into evil, as was the case with Ahab and Jezebel.

Agreed. Man's heart is towards evil and contrary to God's desires.

Many people assume that Solomon was drawn away becasue he had so many wives.

I disagree here, Solomon lusted after beautiful woman and the women he lusted after were pagan and served other Gods, therefore to appease his wives, he build temples to their Gods so they could worship their Gods.

Ahab proved that this is not at all the rule, and I would venture to say that there are many living examples of this all around us even today. I am not sure I follow you here, because Ahab was the most evil in the sight of God. Not only did he subcomb to Idolatry, he also lived in lust and covetousness. I Kings 16:31-33. Is this the point you make?(I just wanted to throw that in before someone else brought it up.)




I would not say that God ever allowed anyone to have MANY wives. Of course, that also depends on how you personally define "many." How many is "many"? ok, few, many , more than one. One of those should fit since as in Soloman's case he had an excessive amout of wives

As for Jesus' statements, the CONTEXT of those statements had to do with divorce, not a plurality of wives. That is my point, even though the question was regarding divorce, Jesus ALSO pointed out that God made them male and female and that was a union ordained by God. If you look at the verse in Genesis, it never implied pluralism. The union of marriage was always from God as one man and one woman.

If you are going to point at the singular use of key words words as opposed to the plural, well, in this instance you will be creating quite a mess for yourself, because when you are forced to apply that same rule of interpretation consistently, you will inevitably get into trouble.

Don, I am using the words as they are used within the text, I am not applying one definition to each scipture where the word is use. And I certainly am not deciding on the definition that applies to the argument I am presenting.

This is only a caution for you to remain consistent with your rules of interpretation as you apply them to the issue of polygyny. If we can force meaning into the text that is not within the context, then we must also acknowledge the claims of the cults.

In Christ Jesus

Dr. Don Dean

 

[ZiSunka]

"But know this, that in the last days perilous times will come: 2 For men will be lovers of themselves, lovers of money, boasters, proud, blasphemers, disobedient to parents, unthankful, unholy, 3 unloving, unforgiving, slanderers, without self-control, brutal, despisers of good, 4 traitors, headstrong, haughty, lovers of pleasure rather than lovers of God, 5 having a form of godliness but denying its power. And from such people turn away! " 2 Timothy 3:1-5

Polygamy shows a lack of self-control. It turns marriage into an amusement, a way to gain sexual pleasure, and not a mechanism for pair-bonding the way God intended it to be.

He didn't create them man and woman and woman, or man and man and woman. He didn't make Adam two wives, just one. God set marriage up to be one man with one woman. If it wasn't so, he would have said so. But he only made ONE woman for the man.

Self-control is the ability to be satisfied with whatever is enough, and not selfishly take for yourself more. One wife is all that is needed to make a family. Two wives are not needed. Pick a good wife the first time and your won't have to lust after a second one.

 

[Debi]

"But know this, that in the last days perilous times will come: 2 For men will be lovers of themselves, lovers of money, boasters, proud, blasphemers, disobedient to parents, unthankful, unholy, 3 unloving, unforgiving, slanderers, without self-control, brutal, despisers of good, 4 traitors, headstrong, haughty, lovers of pleasure rather than lovers of God, 5 having a form of godliness but denying its power. And from such people turn away! " 2 Timothy 3:1-5

Polygamy shows a lack of self-control. It turns marriage into an amusement, a way to gain sexual pleasure, and not a mechanism for pair-bonding the way God intended it to be.

He didn't create them man and woman and woman, or man and man and woman. He didn't make Adam two wives, just one. God set marriage up to be one man with one woman. If it wasn't so, he would have said so. But he only made ONE woman for the man.

Self-control is the ability to be satisfied with whatever is enough, and not selfishly take for yourself more. One wife is all that is needed to make a family. Two wives are not needed. Pick a good wife the first time and your won't have to lust after a second one.