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Pneuma3

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Just so I do not answer the wrong post is this the one you are referring to?
 
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Hammster

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can you show me a scripture that says not everyone is saved?

This is a problem you have to face, what you believe is not actually recorded in scripture while what I believe is very plainly spoken of in scripture by both Paul and John.
Matthew 25:46
 
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Pneuma3

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Last verse.

And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.

the word is aionios, not aidios. Aidios all scholars agree means eternal. aionios means of uncertain duration and pertains to an age.

Thus they shall go away into age during correction. That correction come via the workings wrath which is the law, which is a ministration of death (to our old man nature) and our schoolmaster that leads back to Christ.
 
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Hammster

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You are incorrect on that, but I know this will be a complete waste of my time. So I’m bowing out now.
 
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mmksparbud

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You are still saying the scapegoat is the Atonement for our sins. Thus if the scapegoat is Satan then you are saying Satan is the atonement for our sins.

I cannot help it if 1+1=2

You still can not seem to comprehend. Is there another language that you are proficient in that I can use????

NO--SATAN IS NOT THE ATONEMENT---JESUS IS!!! He died for our sins---
Satan will die for causing the sins--very simple.
ONLY ONE GOAT DIES--ONLY ONE ATONEMENT NEEDED----JESUS DIED ONCE FOR ALL, NOT TWICE.

1+-0=1
 
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Pneuma3

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The problem is that it doesn’t say that His work is sufficient for all people. I agree that it is.

Yes it does say it was sufficient for all and this scapegoat show it was for all everyone.

What it says is that He is a propitiation for the whole world

And just as the two goats was for all Israel much more is the better sacrifice for the whole world.


The workings of Gods wrath is via the law, the law comes to and end or has no power over those who are in Christ. Thus God does not hold our sins against us however we need our old man crucified or die to self by taking up our cross and following Him.

There is no such thing as what mainstream Christianity call "hell".
 
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Pneuma3

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Look at the highlight.
10 But the goat, on which the lot fell to be the scapegoat, shall be presented alive before the LORD, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go for a scapegoat into the wilderness.

The scriptures say the scapegoat makes atonement so unless Satan makes atonement for us then the scapegoat must be Jesus.
 
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Pneuma3

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You are incorrect on that, but I know this will be a complete waste of my time. So I’m bowing out now.

Sorry to see you bow out ham, but will leave you with this thought.

Scholars are divided as to the meaning of aionios, and there is much misinformation out there concerning that word and if God is not the God of confusion why would he use a word with so much confusion attached to it when every scholar agrees aidios is the Greek word for eternal?

So why oh why would God not have chosen aidios if those scriptures actually are concerned with mans eternal destiny?
 
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mmksparbud

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Look at the highlight.


The scriptures say the scapegoat makes atonement so unless Satan makes atonement for us then the scapegoat must be Jesus.

Lev 16:9 And Aaron shall bring the goat upon which the LORD'S lot fell, and offer him for a sin offering.
Lev 16:10 But the goat, on which the lot fell to be the scapegoat, shall be presented alive before the LORD, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go for a scapegoat into the wilderness.

Only 1 goat shed blood for sin.
 
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Pneuma3

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Two goats representing ONE sacrifice.

You don't seem to understand that they could not use one goat to represent the atonement because then nothing could be shown for the taking away of sin. they needed TWO goat in order to do that.

And the scapegoat is for ATONEMENT, thus must represent Christ. so you can keep your unbiblical stance that Satan is the scapegoat if you prefer but I doubt anyone else will agree with you.
 
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mmksparbud

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No one has to agree with me--this is not a contest. Both views have adherents. We will each agree to keep our own views on this. Neither view, actually, is unbiblical.
How can the death of the one goat not be sufficient to portray the removal of sin as there was only one Jesus and one death needed. His death alone removes sin from us---what else did Jesus have to do to remove sins? Was His blood not enough? I still do not see how you have explained the need for 2 when it says that Jesus died once for all and without the shedding of blood there is no removal of sin and the 2nd goat did not shed blood.
 
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Pneuma3

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No both views are not biblical because Satan has NO PART in our ATONEMENT
and yet scapegoat is for ATONEMENT, and because of your lack of understanding scripture you make Satan a part of the ATONEMENT.

Have you never read that we are reconciled (this is the atonement of the dead goat) by His death but saved by His life (this is the scapegoat that takes away ALL sin)
 
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mmksparbud

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LOL--And here I was trying to cut you some slack.
Do you not realize it is Jesus Himself, as our High Priest, who will place all the sins that He paid for on the head of Satan, just as the High Priest placed all the sins of the slain goat on the head of the scapegoat?
Satan blares the blame for al sin
Jesus paid the price. It is biblical, and a correct understanding of the sanctuary service. Believe what you want.
 
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Pneuma3

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the scapegoat is for atonement, does not matter how much you want it to be Satan it cannot be or Satan has part in our atonement.

And of course the high priest is referring to Jesus as He is the High priest and the sacrifice.

What you are saying now is the high priest is neither goat which leads to the conclusion that Jesus did not die for our sins.

You are wrong here mmk, but like another poster even when shown via a dictionary the meaning of a word refused to believe that was the meaning of the word.

So go ahead and believe Satan has part in our atonement if you must but it is unscriptural and profanes the very sacrifice itself.
 
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bling

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Read all about it in the Talmuds.

Why does everyone say when I state something recorded in Jewish history it is just "speculation?"
Dave, since you are familiar with the Talmud, I was told many years ago that the early Jewish writings did not consider the sin sacrifices as being replacements for them (the bag of flour, doves, lambs or goats were not taking their place), but I have not found that myself do you have anything on that either way?

My understanding is the Day of Atonement only addressed possible sins (sin the people were not even sure they committed? All other sins have been addressed (unintentional sins and rebellious against god sins [including the picking up of sticks on the sabbath])?

You might also address my next post.
 
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bling

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If these goats are to represent Christ’s atoning sacrifice (which they do) why are they both or either not slowly tortured to death?

You said this: Jesus Christ, he who was made sin for us who knew no sin. In other words Jesus became humanities azazel.

What does Christ becoming “sin” mean to you? Did Christ become a sinner? Did Christ become an intangible object of “sin”?

If you go to the NIV there is an alternative translation for at the bottom where “sin offering” is given as an alternative to “being made sin” and we all know Christ was a “sin offering”, so what support is there for that translation?

Paul being a scholar of the Torah, used a Hebraism. In this case, the Hebrew word for "sin" was also used to mean "sin offering" (see the Hebrew word: chatta'ath), and thus to be "made sin" was a Hebrew way of saying "made a sin offering". the NASB cross-references to Romans 8:3 which uses "sin offering" in a similar text as 2 Corinthians 5:21

There is the analogy in 2 Corinthians 8:9; the cross-reference to the clearer statement in Romans 8:3 that Christ was sent "in the likeness of sinful flesh" to deal with sin; and the allusion to Sacrifice in 2 Corinthians 5:21 where it says Christ "knew no sin" in corresponding to the sacrificial animal being free of blemish (otherwise Paul saying "knew no sin" would be irrelevant here).

The Greek word for "sin" ,that Paul uses, is used in the Greek Old Testament both to mean "sin" and "sin offering," with both usages even in the same verse such as in Leviticus 4:3.

You can certainly do a deeper study of 2 Cor 5: 21 and we can go into Ro.3-4.

You said: “being one with God is the meaning of atonement”, so where do you find that definition given in scripture?

What do you see as the relationship between atonement and being forgiven?

Is God the one being moved toward man or is man being moved toward God through atonement?


People try to show how all these atonement activities in Lev. 16 are being at least partially like what Christ did and they are, but can we show how these “animals” were representing “sinful humans”? To use Lev. 16 to support the idea: “Christ is our penal substitution”, you need to show the animals were to be penal substitutions for humans in Lev 16?

We can see how the scapegoat is like Christ carrying the guilt of sin outside the city and away from humans, but how is the goat taking my place?

We can see the similarities between the sin sacrifice goat and Christ both are an atonement sacrifice, but how is the sacrificed goat like sinful humans?

The slaughter of animals by the priest was the most humane way of killing an animal at the time, but if they are taking sinful man’s punishment they would at least have to be slowly tortured to death.

The Jews of the time could appreciate the scape goat symbolically carrying their guilt away allow them to but that guilt behind them, but how was that a penal substitution for them (the goat was set free).

The high priest can be easily seen as a substitute for the sinner, but the priest is not a penal substitute?
 
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Gr8Grace

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If it’s satified against all sin, then there is no reason that any should be sent to hell. It would be unjust. But we know that His wrath remains on some (John 3:36).
The problem is evil. Gods wrath is satisfied for ALL sin, but we still have the problem of evil........self justification,self-righteousness,human good.

Notice that unbelievers are judged according to their DEEDS(evil/self righteousness/human good/self justification.) Not their sins........The Lord Jesus Christ paid for ALL sin.

2 Cor 11:15~~New American Standard Bible
Therefore it is not surprising if his servants also disguise themselves as servants of righteousness, whose end will be according to their deeds.

Rev 20:12~~New American Standard Bible
And I saw the dead, the great and the small, standing before the throne, and books were opened; and another book was opened, which is the book of life; and the dead were judged from the things which were written in the books, according to their deeds.

Rev 20:13~~New American Standard Bible
And the sea gave up the dead which were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead which were in them; and they were judged, every one of them according to their deeds.

This is why religion is satans ace trump. And getting people to do "good" and justify themselves......it is actually what unbelievers pay for in the end, Because Jesus died for all their sins.

satan~~"repent of your sins.", "Do your level best."

The Lord Jesus Christ~~"repent of your unbelief of who I am and what I DID for you."
 
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