It would be like declaring that I am "phat".
Yeah, sorry. That statement makes no sense.
It is like you are admitting to how your belief is illogical.
You said:
Please show how the context of the following scriptures deny the reality of what they say: Romans 3:23,
While Romans 3:10, and Romans 3:23 applies to all people because all have sinned at one point in their life, for the believer, this would be primarily in reference to their past old life (See Ephesians 2:2-3, Colossians 3:5-7). No doubt you believe this applies to the believer as in reference to also his current present walk with God, too (Hence, why you want to falsely say you are a justified sinner).
But if you were to believe Romans 3:10, and Romans 3:23 applies to the believer in his current present walk with God, then you must also believe Romans 3:11 applies to the current present walk of the believer, too. What does Romans 3:11 say?
"There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God" (Romans 3:11).
So basically if you believe Romans 3:10, and Romans 3:23 apply to the current walk with God in how they always sin, then you must also believe that the believer (who walks with God) has no understanding and they do not seek after God, too. Do you believe the body of Christ has no understanding and they do not seek after God?
See. This is why your belief does not work. You are not reading things in context, my friend.
You said:
You are quoting a verse on "Circumcision Salvationism" and you don't even realize it.
Again, please. Just please read Acts of the Apostles 15:1, Acts of the Apostles 15:5, and Acts of the Apostles 15:24. Please just read carefully these verses.
You said:
This verse is commonly used by many as a banner flag to justify sin on some level.
3 verses you have to read in context here.
1. 1 John 1:10 says, "If we say that we have not sinned (PAST TENSE), we make him a liar, and his word is not in us." This is saying that if we deny we have ever sinned EVER. Obviously we both do not believe that way. We both agree that we have sinned as a part of our old lives as unbelievers. So 1 John 1:8 is speaking in a similar way but in the present tense. It is saying a person is denying the existence of sin. Christian Scientists think sin is an illusion. OSAS proponents do not think they are under the penalty of sin when they do sin because Jesus paid for their future sin by their having a belief on Jesus. But John corrects this thinking by telling the brethren to confess their sin in order to be forgiven of sin (See 1 John 1:9). This confession of sin is in view or context to forsaking sin (or walking in the light, i.e. keeping God's commandments - See 1 John 1:7).
2. 1 John 2:26 gives us the clue that John is warning the brethren about certain individuals who are trying to seduce them. 1 John 1:8 is a warning to the brethren not to think like these false gnostics or individuals. We can see by 1 John 1:10 that they denied the reality of sin's existence. 1 John 1:8 is a warning not to think this way.
3. 1 John 2:4 says that person who says they know the Lord and they do not keep His commandments, they are a liar and the truth is not in them. So if your interpretation on 1 John 1:8 was true, then we would have a contradiction in Scripture. You cannot always be sinning and yet also declare you are keeping His commandments. It would be a contradiction. Jesus says you cannot serve two masters.
I am going to reply to the rest of what you said in another post because I remember you saying you do not read long posts.