Clare73 said:
However, we see references to it in the OT promises to the patriarchs in
2 Sa 22:50,
Ps 18:49,
Dt 32:43,
Ps 117:1,
Isa 11:10 (
Ro 15:8-12).
It was no secret that that the blessing of Abraham would come on the Gentiles …of course looking back it would seem apparent to us …what that is…. that is the advantage of hindsight…. but there was no clue as to the mystery of the Jews & Gentiles being fellow heirs and of the same body….. that was Gods sacred secret.
Keeping in mind that mystery in the NT means something never before revealed, a "secret."
It does not mean something difficult or impossible to understand.
I don’t mean to be rude …but that does not make any sense…. If it’s a secret known only to God …it’s a secret known only to God.
1Co 2:6-
8.
That means it did not exist within the physical realm. But once it was revealed, as it was to Paul (
Rom 16:25&26 …. Eph 3:3 -9 …. Col 1:25&26) …then it could be understood.
Even the prophets of old and the angels desired to see what was between the sufferings and the glory …to no avail
1Pe 1:10-
12 …because the secret things belong to God
Deu 29:29
However, the mystery of 1 Co 15:51 does not refer to the rapture of all believers.
It refers to the believers who will not die a natural death, because they are alive when Jesus returns for the resurrection, rapture and judgment, and who, therefore, will not be "rising from the grave" with new transformed bodies in the resurrection (1 Co 15:42-44),
but instead, their living physical natural (sinful, mortal, weak) bodies will be transformed "in the twinkling of an eye" (instantaneously) into physical spiritual (sinless, immortal, powerful) bodies (1 Co 15:44), as are the resurrected.
The rapture is not the "mystery" referred to in 1 Co 15:51.
I didn’t say the rapture was
“the” mystery.... but it was
“a” secret (mystery) …and if words mean things…. then it was a secret that had not been revealed ….at least to the believers of Corinth at that time.
This epistle was written to the church of God…. born again believers
1Co 1:1&
2. Follow the pronouns from
brethren in
1Co 15:50 “us” “we” “you” “all” …If it is addressed to us.... it cannot be referring to anybody else.
Mt 24:31 does: "And he will send his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other."
I know it’s similar …but similar is not identical. With Gods word there is no ambiguity, particularly when context (both locally and remoter) corroborates its particular time frame and to whom it’s targeted.
Matthew was directed at Israel and that entire chapter 24 is talking about the
great tribulation (
Mat 24:21) which is only mentioned here and 2 more X in Revelation.
Comparing the two verses:
Mat 24:31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
1Th 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
Matthew says ... angels (plural)
with a great sound of a trumpet …. and
they shall gather together his elect
1 Thessalonians says …
The Lord descends from heaven with a shout (
keleusma)
with the voice of the archangel (singular)
with the trump of God: and the
dead in Christ shall rise first.
If we have only one difference between the two, it violates the law of logic which dictates that contradictory propositions cannot both be true in the same sense at the same time,
Even though one verse may not give all the specifics concerning the same event, (which is common in the gospels) but if you have contradiction(s) regarding the same subject…it is not the same event.
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Clare ...These two verses below ↓ I did not really understand the question with these, so I didn't comment.
Would
1 Co 15:51-54 regarding the transformation of those still living when Jesus returns be NT "prophecy"?
Would
1 Th 4:16-17 regarding the rapture be NT "prophecy"?