dzheremi
Coptic Orthodox non-Egyptian
- Aug 27, 2014
- 13,897
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- United States
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There's an elephant in this room (ok …survey) which no-one has yet raised.
The question asked is:
A small business owner in <their state> should be allowed to refuse to provide products or services to < group> , if doing so violated their religious beliefs”
For each Group the reason for refusal remains the same i.e. 'if doing so violated their religious belief". Why would the survey find a difference in the level of acceptability of a gay/lesbian violating their religious belief compared an African American violating their religious belief compared to an atheist or Jew violating their religious belief? They are all accused of doing the same thing.
This seems like an easy one:
Not all of those populations are reasoned by all respondents to be as likely to violate the shop owners' religious belief (whatever that is).
Most people have heard of Christian groups which are anti-gay marriage or whatever, and have heard of the various recent cases surrounding religiously-based service refusals that have intersected with that particular issue and population. So it is a fairly salient issue.
By contrast, it has been perhaps several decades (maybe less, depending on where you live in the US) since most people have heard anyone argue against particular races of people in the context of preaching this or that version of Christianity. I think Bob Jones University was the last time I heard about that, and they stopped their ban on interracial dating after public outcry led them to reconsider it back in 2000. 20 years ago already. So that is a less salient issue.
One obvious reason is that the survey is not really measuring the acceptability of a particular group violating religious belief. It may actually be measuring the underlying acceptability of that group. Hence the different results for different groups. If this is correct, then the result has nothing to do with violating religious belief - it's an indirect measurement of prejudice.
OB
Why are you jumping to that conclusion? If I support another person's right to discriminate as they see fit, does it mean that I see it as fit to discriminate that way, too? Nobody can ever support the right of someone else to be wrong and live wrongly and behave wrongly?
Well then...seeing as how you're an atheist posting on a Christian messageboard, I'm glad that's not actually how reality works.

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