Maybe you should explain why St. Paul said ALL but not Jewish apocrypha...
Rivisions with the intent of vailidation?
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Maybe you should explain why St. Paul said ALL but not Jewish apocrypha...
Revisions of Jewish Scriptures with the intent of validating them???
So what "ALL" Scriptures is he talking about?
Sorry, there are no changes to the Scriptures and for this instance, there is no need to. Your assertion of Church revision of St. Paul's actual teachings can and must be found in the documented history of Christianity to hold any water, it doesn't have much to do with God's existence.My slant was revising Paul to include ALL scriptures, thus vailidating them. (?) The question mark indicates that is a mere guess no more verifiable than the exsistence of god.
Start with explaining the relevancy before asking me questions. How does St. Paul's letter to his disciple relate to his own father?Where was Paul born and what was his father's name?I feel since we are being critical with our analysis, that dynamic should be consistent.How can we verify that Paul said what you claim he said?
It is probable that Paul was referring to the Tanakh and some Jewish literatures as the "ALL" Scriptures.Revisions of Jewish Scriptures with the intent of validating them??? That would be a little unscriptural for Jews knowing how they held on to their Scriptures. So what "ALL" Scriptures is he talking about?
You did not explain the CONTEXT of that verse. Let me help the readers understand what I meant by context:Are you 'riggin serious? The gospels and acts of apostles put it right in front of us that St. Paul met the disciples and elders. While being a strong defender of faith for the GENTILES and argued that Gentiles could not be held responsible of the Jewish law, yet you would suggest he is telling them to hold fast to the Jewish Scriptures. The keyword is ALL! He is familiar with Scriptures and inspiration that were already existence and familiar and knowledgeable of what is to come. He is writing this epistle to Timothy, his disciple. Maybe you should explain why St. Paul said ALL but not Jewish apocrypha...
The LOGIC that peaceful sould was asking me to follow was: If the scripture claims it is from God, then there should be reference from the scripture that it is from God.Since when religion was not perfect? Since when author claims to have not perfected the other religions? Where is your evidence to this perfect religion?What is the evidence of ownership, word of God claim in say chapter 114? Chapter 99? List them all, every single chapter, by your logic, should include this claim. Because all these chapters are separate revelations, collected at a later time.
You did not explain the CONTEXT of that verse. Let me help the readers understand what I meant by context:
Paul wrote to Timothy about the ALL Scriptures in 2 Timothy 3:14-16:
14 But as for you, continue in what you have learned and have become convinced of, because you know those from whom you learned it, 15 and how from infancy you have known the holy Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus. 16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,
Notice I bold the two main points above. Paul was saying that when Timothy was a child, he knew the Scriptures. All Scriptures (that Timothy knew) were "God-breathed".
That is the CONTEXT.
When Timothy was a child, there was NO Gospels, NO Epistles of any sort.
My point again: Paul was NOT referring to the Gospels or the Epistles as Scriptures that were inspired.
I don't know, what is the requirement in your head that suggests they should have been?Paul did refer to a story about Jannes and Jambres (2 Tim 3:8-9) found in some Jewish literatures. If these were "scriptures inspired by God" included in the "ALL" scriptures why were they not included in the canonical bible?
Stop beating around the bush and answer the questions I asked. I am not following peaceful's logic, I am following yours. Where in Chapter 114, for instance, it says the revelation is of Allah and narrated by Allah? They are still technically relayed by a medium, unlike God directly appearing to Moses for example, and by that comparison, they are still weak.I don't care what you believe, I am interested in what you allege of my faith. You can believe whatever you want but you can not simply allege nonsense to my faith by comparison with yours.No scholars contested the sources, sure, if they might be skipping the whole satanic verses controversy...Quran's claim is among those heathen who refuse to believe and it is rather a desperate attempt to get those believe, not with action but by claim. Christian Scriptures are testimonies of God's actions which speak for themselves...The LOGIC that peaceful sould was asking me to follow was: If the scripture claims it is from God, then there should be reference from the scripture that it is from God.
That I have given peaceful soul through several references of the Quran coming from God. (pls check with peaceful soul)
The last revelation came at the Last Sermon of the Prophet: God has perfected the religion of Islam and the Prophet reiterated that if Muslims follow the Quran and Sunnah they will not go astray.
The end of revelations (Quran) coincides with the last sermon of the Prophet.
Notwithstanding that, you would have to counter both Islamic and non-Islamic sources that strongly put it that Muslims believe ALL the surahs were from God.
No scholars have contested that one surah comes from God and one from other sources. The "ALL" here refers to one author: God, and not several writers.
Irrelevant what I believe!! Stick to the point of discussion.Ok, let's help the readers,Note what he says, "you have known the holy Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus", are you testifying to the same thing St. Paul testifies here that these holy Jewish Scriptures are teaching and pointing to salvation in Christ? Say yes or no!
That's too obvious. Paul could not have said Timothy learnt the Gospels because the Gospels were not in existent when Timothy was a child. (the reason why I bold the word "child")Further, St. Paul points out the fact that Timothy has a religious upbringing and he is familiar with Scriptures, how does he only refer to those within this context?
Paul probably believe in the Jewish apocryphas and believe they were inspired by God??I don't know, what is the requirement in your head that suggests they should have been?
Actually I am, you are not aware of the consequences of your own logic you are applying to Christian Scriptures, St. Paul using "holy scriptures" is drawing attention to salvation in Christ Jesus, his point is not to define what is scripture at that point, but the target, the destination. Christian Scriptures point us toward salvation in Christ, and he notes ALL Scriptures that do this, is OF GOD! You are yet stuck within what St. Paul might have meant or not...Irrelevant what I believe!! Stick to the point of discussion.
Timothy has more than likely come in contact with Gospels later in life, he took upon his mission in the Christian church, and St. Paul is not addressing an infant at that point anymore, he is instructing to his pupil. The usage of his childhood was to draw attention to his wisdom that comes again with Scriptures, St. Paul by drawing this parallel, is not dismissing any other possible Scripture, again, he would have said ALL THOSE SCRIPTURES, he says ALL SCRIPTURE!That's too obvious. Paul could not have said Timothy learnt the Gospels because the Gospels were not in existent when Timothy was a child. (the reason why I bold the word "child")
Far fetched theory, there is no influence in his life but Christ's ministry.Paul probably believe in the Jewish apocryphas and believe they were inspired by God??
The only obvious conclusion is that Paul NEVER mentions or include the Gospels or the Epistles as the ALL SCRIPTURES. He would probably have mention the coming of new scriptures to include the scriptures that Timothy knew as a child - Paul certainly did not do that.Paul is not addressing an infant at that point anymore, he is instructing to his pupil. The usage of his childhood was to draw attention to his wisdom that comes again with Scriptures, St. Paul by drawing this parallel, is not dismissing any other possible Scripture, again, he would have said ALL THOSE SCRIPTURES, he says ALL SCRIPTURE!
But you cannot dismiss that Paul believe in Jewish apocryphas. The best part is that he quoted about ALL SCRIPTURES inspired by God in the same chapter he relate the story of Jannes and Jambres.Far fetched theory, there is no influence in his life but Christ's ministry.
The only obvious conclusion is that Paul NEVER mentions or include the Gospels or the Epistles as the ALL SCRIPTURES.
He would probably have mention the coming of new scriptures to include the scriptures that Timothy knew as a child - Paul certainly did not do that.
But you cannot dismiss that Paul believe in Jewish apocryphas. The best part is that he quoted about ALL SCRIPTURES inspired by God in the same chapter he relate the story of Jannes and Jambres.