sonshine234
Well-Known Member
I am not Protestant this has been discussed before.Oh. The Methodist Church is Prima Scriptura to. I don't have a problem with it. But Anglicans are Protestant.
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I am not Protestant this has been discussed before.Oh. The Methodist Church is Prima Scriptura to. I don't have a problem with it. But Anglicans are Protestant.
No doubt it is moot for you but for me that book is inspired scripture and hence authoritative.
Why is that interesting?Interestingly enough Athanasius of Alexandria agreed with Jerome that they are not for doctrine.
Don't most of us agree that sacred scripture is "profitable for doctrine" and inspired? I know that I do.
That would be welcomed.My Church does too.
1. There is no scripture calling for us to pray for the dead.But what's that got to do with this thread? Purgatory is implied by scripture's encouragement to pray for the dead;
2 Maccabees 12:38-45 KJV
39 And the day following Judas came with his company, to take away the bodies of them that were slain, and to bury them with their kinsmen, in the sepulchres of their fathers.
40 And they found under the coats of the slain some of the donaries of the idols of Jamnia, which the law forbiddeth to the Jews: so that all plainly saw, that for this cause they were slain.
41 Then they all blessed the just judgment of the Lord, who had discovered the things that were hidden.
42 And so betaking themselves to prayers, they besought him, that the sin which had been committed might be forgotten. But the most valiant Judas exhorted the people to keep themselves from sin, forasmuch as they saw before their eyes what had happened, because of the sins of those that were slain.
43 And making a gathering, he sent twelve thousand drachms of silver to Jerusalem for sacrifice to be offered for the sins of the dead, thinking well and religiously concerning the resurrection,
44 (For if he had not hoped that they that were slain should rise again, it would have seemed superfluous and vain to pray for the dead,)
45 And because he considered that they who had fallen asleep with godliness, had great grace laid up for them.
2 Maccabees 12:38-45 KJV (NOT really the KJV)38 missing verse
39 And the day following Judas came with his company, to take away the bodies of them that were slain, and to bury them with their kinsmen, in the sepulchres of their fathers.
40 And they found under the coats of the slain some of the donaries of the idols of Jamnia, which the law forbiddeth to the Jews: so that all plainly saw, that for this cause they were slain.
41 Then they all blessed the just judgment of the Lord, who had discovered the things that were hidden.
42 And so betaking themselves to prayers, they besought him, that the sin which had been committed might be forgotten. But the most valiant Judas exhorted the people to keep themselves from sin, forasmuch as they saw before their eyes what had happened, because of the sins of those that were slain.
43 And making a gathering, he sent twelve thousand drachms of silver to Jerusalem for sacrifice to be offered for the sins of the dead, thinking well and religiously concerning the resurrection,
44 (For if he had not hoped that they that were slain should rise again, it would have seemed superfluous and vain to pray for the dead,)
45 And because he considered that they who had fallen asleep with godliness, had great grace laid up for them. (Missing part of the verse ought to read: it was an holy and good thought. Whereupon he made a reconciliation for the dead, that they might be delivered from sin. )
BobRyan, why did you doctor the quote from 2 Maccabees?
I quoted directly from Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition (DRA)...
Back to thread subject. If we have to somehow pay for our sins after we die, then which of our sins did Jesus die for on the cross? Before you answer, remember He died over 2,000 years ago, so any sins we have committed, do commit or will commit are all in the future, from the perspective of the cross. According to Scripture, Jesus bore our sins, nailing them to the cross once and for all (Colossians 2:14; 1 Peter 2:24; 1 Peter 3:18). How can we atone for any of our sins after our death, if Jesus bore our sins and nailed them to the cross once and for all?
"But He was wounded for our transgressions, He was bruised for our iniquities; The chastisement for our peace was upon Him, and by His stripes we are healed. All like sheep have gone astray; We have turned, every one, to his own way; And the Lord has laid on Him the iniquity of us all." (Isaiah 53:5-6)
Interestingly enough Athanasius of Alexandria agreed with Jerome that they are not for doctrine.
I am not Protestant this has been discussed before.
DiligentlySeekingGod, South Bound, who is it that takes Scripture out of context, certainly not the "Church" that compiled the Canonical Books found in all of our NT.
Christian history, including secular, Jewish and even many Protestant sources attest to this true fact that it was the early Bishops of His Catholic / Apostolic Church that gave us the "Canon List" of Books that we find in "all'' of our NT along with a "Table Of Contents ". In order for those Books, from a myriad of many books, to be accepted as Canonical by those bishops they would have had to know the correct interpretation, if anybody believes otherwise, then they can't honestly believe that all the books that compile our Holy Bibles are the correct books.
I group many of you non-Catholics much like the emperor without any clothes, all proclaiming yourselves as Bible scholars, while rarely finding any non- Catholic sect agreeing on teachings of Holy Scripture, while all of you attempting to project yourselves as Bible scholars clothed in Scripture trying to convince the rest of us that you know it all - when in truth most of your knowledge of Scripture is rather naked.
2 Maccabees 12:45 (KJV) tells us that prayer for the dead so that their sins may be atoned for is a good thing. And Jesus indicated that the unforgiveable sin cannot be forgiven in this world or the world to come. Catholics take the positive teaching of the passage from Maccabees together with the negative statement of the Lord as encouragement to pray for the souls of those who have died but were not in mortal sin.
Catholics are very careful in handling the scriptures. Jesus' death is the one and only full and complete atonement for sins. His sacrifice is never to be repeated because it suffices super-abundantly for the sins of the whole world. So please be assured that Catholics both teach and believe that Christ's atoning work is complete and that it suffices for us all.I hope the above quote from the Catechism of the Catholic Church will help you understand what Catholics teach and believe about Jesus' atoning death.II. Christ’s Redemptive Death in God’s Plan of Salvation
“Jesus handed over according to the definite plan of God”599 Jesus’ violent death was not the result of chance in an unfortunate coincidence of circumstances, but is part of the mystery of God’s plan, as St. Peter explains to the Jews of Jerusalem in his first sermon on Pentecost: “This Jesus [was] delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God.”(Acts 2:23) This Biblical language does not mean that those who handed him over were merely passive players in a scenario written in advance by God.(Acts 3:13)“He died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures”
600 To God, all moments of time are present in their immediacy. When therefore he establishes his eternal plan of “predestination,” he includes in it each person’s free response to his grace: “In this city, in fact, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, gathered together against your holy servant Jesus, whom you anointed, to do whatever your hand and your plan had predestined to take place.”(Acts 4:27-28; cf. Ps 2:1-2) For the sake of accomplishing his plan of salvation, God permitted the acts that flowed from their blindness.(Mt 26:54; Jn 18:36; 19:11; Acts 3:17-18)601 The Scriptures had foretold this divine plan of salvation through the putting to death of “the righteous one, my Servant” as a mystery of universal redemption, that is, as the ransom that would free men from the slavery of sin.(Isa 53:11; cf. 53:12; Jn 8:34-36; Acts 3:14) Citing a confession of faith that he himself had “received,” St. Paul professes that “Christ died for our sins in accordance with the scriptures.”(1 Cor 15:3; cf. also Acts 3:18; 7:52; 13:29; 26:22-23) In particular Jesus’ redemptive death fulfils Isaiah’s prophecy of the suffering Servant.(Isa 53:7-8 and Acts 8:32-35) Indeed Jesus himself explained the meaning of his life and death in the light of God’s suffering Servant.(Mt 20:28) After his Resurrection he gave this interpretation of the Scriptures to the disciples at Emmaus, and then to the apostles.(Lk 24:25-27, 44-45)“For our sake God made him to be sin”602 Consequently, St. Peter can formulate the apostolic faith in the divine plan of salvation in this way: “You were ransomed from the futile ways inherited from your fathers... with the precious blood of Christ, like that of a lamb without blemish or spot. He was destined before the foundation of the world but was made manifest at the end of the times for your sake.”(1 Pet 1:18-20) Man’s sins, following on original sin, are punishable by death.(Rom 5:12; 1 Cor 15:56) By sending his own Son in the form of a slave, in the form of a fallen humanity, on account of sin, God “made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.”(2 Cor 5:21; cf. Phil 2:7; Rom 8:3)God takes the initiative of universal redeeming love
603 Jesus did not experience reprobation as if he himself had sinned.(Cf. Jn 8:46) But in the redeeming love that always united him to the Father, he assumed us in the state of our waywardness of sin, to the point that he could say in our name from the cross: “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”(Mk 15:34; Ps 22:2; cf. Jn 8:29) Having thus established him in solidarity with us sinners, God “did not spare his own Son but gave him up for us all,” so that we might be “reconciled to God by the death of his Son.”(Rom 8:32, 5:10)604 By giving up his own Son for our sins, God manifests that his plan for us is one of benevolent love, prior to any merit on our part: “In this is love, not that we loved God but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the expiation for our sins.”(1 Jn 4:10; 4:19) God “shows his love for us in that while we were yet sinners Christ died for us.”(Rom 5:8)
605 At the end of the parable of the lost sheep Jesus recalled that God’s love excludes no one: “So it is not the will of your Father who is in heaven that one of these little ones should perish.”(Mt 18:14) He affirms that he came “to give his life as a ransom for many”; this last term is not restrictive, but contrasts the whole of humanity with the unique person of the redeemer who hands himself over to save us.(Mt 20:28; cf. Rom 5:18-19) The Church, following the apostles, teaches that Christ died for all men without exception: “There is not, never has been, and never will be a single human being for whom Christ did not suffer.”(Council of Quiercy (853): DS 624; cf. 2 Cor 5:15; 1 Jn 2:2)
Your stated starting position is to reject sacred scripture passages that are directly relevant to the topic of purgatory so I cannot see what value there is in asking me why I believe what the Catholic Church teaches. You've made it clear that you will not accept the reasons that I will give; nevertheless I commend to you the information contained in post #322.MoreCoffee,
To be honest, I find your answer difficult to accept, since I don't uphold to the extra biblical books in your Catholic Bible. ...