Semi-final
Finally, some meat. However, this begs the very question.
We've already conceded the main point, the two phrases aren't synonyms.
Is Davidson's suggestion more plausible? As you have shown here, the situation is more complex than that:
I freely grant that:
οχλος (oxlos) is used as a technical term for the crowd that 'hangs' with Jesus. But that is the very point. Jesus' gang of common people, made up by all accounts clearly of 'taxcollectors', 'drunks', prostitutes and other ne'er do wells (reformed or not) who found acceptance with him, are not the 'other' crowd:
λαος: (laos) The 'people' in another technical (and ethnocentric/racist) sense used by the Pharisees and John too. This group is essentially the group who follows the Temple Cult, that is the bulk of the Pharisee party/non-denominational population.
To put it in modern perspective, we might say that "oxlos" means "street-people", the 'untouchables', while "laos" means 'church-goers', the middle-class Jews, people with businesses and jobs and respect of men, who participate in both synagogue and temple worship, and go to the temple to hear status-quo teaching and political news.
Now the setting is CLEARLY the Temple, where not 'street-urchins' and the despised of Jerusalem society go, but where the large (according to Josephus) body of about one third of Jewish citizens and laypeople go to hear news and reassuring speeches about their self-righteousness. And one can assume here, like in so many other places in John that show a plain knowledge of the content of the synoptics, that John intends to recall the Sermon on the Mount (=Temple steps).
So 'laos' is the more likely choice than 'oxlos' here. Context context context.
two: Of course it is part of the original text. It has good internal and external evidence to support it. Internal evidence by the way is not 'more subjective' than external evidence. It is far more germaine and stronger evidence.
My mistake there. Didn't read over the post.
With so much internal evidence from the Gospel and the pericope and external evidence in the judgements of the early fathers and church practice, in favour of John 8:1-11, it is up to those wanting to remove it to 'prove' a case.
All I claim to have done here is show that Davidson hasn't proven his case, and that's all that's really required for the Pericope to stay in John another thousand years.
I don't need Hill either to sit comfortably with a good case for the authenticity of John 8:1-11.
Interesting rebuttal.
It is absurd, I agree, to restrict John to a single phrase without good reason. However, Davidson is correct that John uses οχλος to suggest a crowd that follows Jesus -- it is a theological term chosen for whatever reason. Thus in John λαος (excluding ch. 8, of course) is used only twice, and only in one way: the Jewish people. And it is ONLY used of the Pharisee's viewpoint (11:50) of Caiaphas and then reiterated ironically by the narrator (18:14) -- one of the best parts of John is the beautiful ironies. On the other hand, οχλος is used in 19 verses, and most of these have to do with people following Jesus because of his signs and his teaching: 6:2 (+ vv.5,22,24); 7:31 (+ v.32); 7:40 (+ vv.43,49); 11:42 (as a witness); 12:9; 12:17 (as a witness); 12:18. Thus the crowd is a kind of chorus in John. They act as one, asking similar questions: the masses which are fickle, which are contemporary with the Community of the written gospel. But this is techincal. What is important is that the context lines up perfectly with the usage of οχλος in the rest of John in ch. 8, but a different phrase is used. I leave it to you to explain the reason for the different phrase.
Finally, some meat. However, this begs the very question.
We've already conceded the main point, the two phrases aren't synonyms.
Is Davidson's suggestion more plausible? As you have shown here, the situation is more complex than that:
I freely grant that:
οχλος (oxlos) is used as a technical term for the crowd that 'hangs' with Jesus. But that is the very point. Jesus' gang of common people, made up by all accounts clearly of 'taxcollectors', 'drunks', prostitutes and other ne'er do wells (reformed or not) who found acceptance with him, are not the 'other' crowd:
λαος: (laos) The 'people' in another technical (and ethnocentric/racist) sense used by the Pharisees and John too. This group is essentially the group who follows the Temple Cult, that is the bulk of the Pharisee party/non-denominational population.
To put it in modern perspective, we might say that "oxlos" means "street-people", the 'untouchables', while "laos" means 'church-goers', the middle-class Jews, people with businesses and jobs and respect of men, who participate in both synagogue and temple worship, and go to the temple to hear status-quo teaching and political news.
Now the setting is CLEARLY the Temple, where not 'street-urchins' and the despised of Jerusalem society go, but where the large (according to Josephus) body of about one third of Jewish citizens and laypeople go to hear news and reassuring speeches about their self-righteousness. And one can assume here, like in so many other places in John that show a plain knowledge of the content of the synoptics, that John intends to recall the Sermon on the Mount (=Temple steps).
So 'laos' is the more likely choice than 'oxlos' here. Context context context.
Two quick points. Hate to be a stickler, but I didn't create Davidson's lame point, and so I didn't make any straw men.The real question is why Davidson thought this was part of the text. I would read [...]..so I'll neglect answering your straw man unless you want to argue that this was part of the original text of the pericope. Unfortunately, I haven't read Von Soden (I have had a busy life) but I don't see a good reason for thinking ews twn eschatwn was originally there.
two: Of course it is part of the original text. It has good internal and external evidence to support it. Internal evidence by the way is not 'more subjective' than external evidence. It is far more germaine and stronger evidence.
Again, disengenious. I don't think it is unreasonable to assume that most readers, even here, cannot read or write Greek. And it is a courtesy (one which you should practice more) to translate important points into English for accessibility. I don't call anyone stupid for not being bilingual, and your suggestion is demeaning to all.If you really think your "ordinary readers" are that stupid, then you probably have very few friends.
. No. I was tired at the end of a long haul there, and a sentence and a half was deleted. I will edit the post.So wait...you are translating επεμενον ερωτωντες as "rising up"?? ερωταω means "to ask." ...
My mistake there. Didn't read over the post.
Well, he's a good scholar, but there are hundreds of great Johannine scholars in the world. Feel free to quote him.And Raymond Brown, btw, is the BEST Johannine Scholar we've seen.
Again, I think you misunderstand or misrepresent the nature of what is required to defend the passage.You are right that in John ei mh occurs only in dialogue. It is quite obvious that this is a significant part of Johannine style (the use of "except," that is). It does not prove that plhn is Johannine, though, and therefore does not prove that Davidson is wrong.
With so much internal evidence from the Gospel and the pericope and external evidence in the judgements of the early fathers and church practice, in favour of John 8:1-11, it is up to those wanting to remove it to 'prove' a case.
All I claim to have done here is show that Davidson hasn't proven his case, and that's all that's really required for the Pericope to stay in John another thousand years.
Well, you are avoiding Scrivener, as do most modern textual critics who can't hold a candle to him, and you are ignoring Burgon because you want to punish him for not conforming to modern 'politically correct' standards at universities, where they teach you to politely obey your superiors at all costs.For now, i'm going to let Scrivener be. He was...special. As will I ignore your dynamic equivalence rants as they have little bearing on the authenticity of the passage. Burgeon falls into the same category as the more modern Hill, and I hate reading him because, like you, he didn't know how to place nice.
I don't need Hill either to sit comfortably with a good case for the authenticity of John 8:1-11.
Interesting rebuttal.
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