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Predestination??

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ContraMundum

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cygnusx1 said:
I Take scripture at Face value , I don't play around with Greek ......... I have seen not weeks but Months of dancing around with Greek scholars and First aorist passives....... all arriving nowhere.... then there is textual criticism , yes , a long debate about which text is better , more accurate and so on can so easily not merely side track debates , but is certain to be inconclusive ......... it just is not a sport I am into....., Thank God.

The first text I quoted is crystal clear and only a Greek scholar could say it is nothing to do with condemnation ........ how clever is a man who says that damnation isn't decreed but the sin which causes it ....... ie , disobedience , is.

"Here, then, is the real problem of our negligence. We fail in our duty to study God's Word not so much because it is difficult to understand, not so much because it is dull and boring, but because it is work. Our problem is not a lack of intelligence or a lack of passion. Our problem is that we are lazy." --R. C. Sproul

The first text you quoted is crystal clear in context, but not to support your thesis. That's why we have to dig deeper and look into to solve the apparent discrepency between us. The study of the original languages is the study of God's word in its truth and purity, the goal of any Christian.

I wish you had more diligence to this- the same you ask of others. I know you've got a good brain on your shoulders and you owe it to yourself to dig deeper, share more information, look to sources, and really find the treasures God has left for us to find in the scriptures. With a brain like yours, you could be a pretty good teacher, IMHO.

You didn't mention which version of the scriptures you are using. Could you please?​
 
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cygnusx1

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ContraMundum said:
"Here, then, is the real problem of our negligence. We fail in our duty to study God's Word not so much because it is difficult to understand, not so much because it is dull and boring, but because it is work. Our problem is not a lack of intelligence or a lack of passion. Our problem is that we are lazy." --R. C. Sproul


The first text you quoted is crystal clear in context, but not to support your thesis. That's why we have to dig deeper and look into to solve the apparent discrepency between us. The study of the original languages is the study of God's word in its truth and purity, the goal of any Christian.

I wish you had more diligence to this- the same you ask of others. I know you've got a good brain on your shoulders and you owe it to yourself to dig deeper, share more information, look to sources, and really find the treasures God has left for us to find in the scriptures. With a brain like yours, you could be a pretty good teacher, IMHO.

You didn't mention which version of the scriptures you are using. Could you please?


I am honestly not sure which translation those scriptures came from , I often use KJV and RSV , i am not over keen on Textual criticism , and I feel there is a good reason that scripture has been translated .......... I don't need to debate the molecules and there structure and origins when I eat a cheese sandwich ....... there just is no need and no time.
thanks for you reply anyway.
 
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Reformationist

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ContraMundum said:
Thanks brother, and yes, I'd like to discuss it because it poses some interesting thoughts to my mind, and I'd like feedback from other informed Christians.

Hey CM. Sorry again for not previously addressing that post. I'll go ahead and repost the points of that post, and that position, here so that I don't have keep referring back to your previous post. :)

ContraMundum said:
Have you heard of the "Warm Cookie" model of Election?

For the record, I have never heard of that label before.

ContraMundum said:
2. Biblical Givens in Election

a. All humans are dead (not non-functional, but separated from God) in sin, slaves of sin, etc. There is a universal disability of the affections. All humans refuse to love God above all else, preferring self to God Rom. 8:7; Eph. 2:1-3


This I agree with.

b. A prior working of grace is necessary to overcome this spiritual inability
John 6:44, 65


I also agree with this.

c. God desires the salvation of all humans
1 Tim. 2:1-4, 2 Peter 3:9; Rev. 21:6; 22:17


Being that Scripture is clear that all that desires, God achieves, I cannot agree with this, at least not in its most literal sense. I do acknowledge that the death of the wicked, while further pronouncing the justness and holiness of God, is not something God is wickedly gleeful over. It does bring Him glory and that, of course, pleases Him.

d. God provides ransom for every human at the Cross
1 Tim. 2:6, 1 John 2:2


As I am not a universalist, or irrational, I acknowledge that this is clearly a logical fallacy. The question must be asked, "To whom does God provide the ransom?" The answer? Obviously, Himself. If the above be true then we must espouse either universalism, i.e., God accepts this ransom on behalf of all mankind, or, the failure of God, i.e., God does not accept this ransom as sufficient. Neither are positions that are revealed in the Gospel.

e. The promise/command, "If you believe in the Lord Jesus Christ, you will be saved," is true for all humans.
John 3:16; Acts 16:31 All who come to God through Jesus Christ will be saved. John 6:37


True.

f. Many are still lost. God's desire for universal salvation is frustrated.
Rev. 20:12-15


Completely at odds with both the nature of God and the revelation of His Word.

I broke the following one up for clarity:

g. God does elect some for special favor: Abram, Israel, disciples, Saul/Paul. This election includes salvation, holiness and mission.

Yes. This is true, though I would clarify that God's elective purpose for all whom He has chosen to redeem includes their salvation.

It is corporate in the sense that people are called into the people of God and the body of Christ
Acts 13:48, Gal. 1:15; Eph. 1:3-11; 2 Tim. 1:9


This one I do not fully understand. Maybe we could address it at your convenience.

h. The object of God's foreknowledge is not specified in
Romans 8:29 or 1 Peter 1:1-2. It does not focus on faith or faithfulness at least in some cases. Foreknowledge of Israel certainly was not based on their faithfulness either before or during the time of their choosing. Rom. 11:2


If I understand it correctly, I would disagree with this in that the "object of God's foreknowledge" is His own eternal intent to save them through the faithfulness of His beloved Son. I do agree that His intent to do so is not based on any provision that He finds in man.

i. Faith is a human act in response to God's grace. There is no good thing whatsoever that merits God's grace
Eph. 2:8-9


I agree, though, again, I qualify by acknowledging that saving faith is the invariable product of God's monergistic grace of regeneration. Man's obedience, which justifies his faith (shows it to be true faith), is certainly man's active and willed response to God's grace. God does not do the believing for man.

j. There is effectual calling, an irresistible redemptive grace, for some: Abram, Saul/Paul
John 6:44, 1 Cor. 1:23-27


This is true, though it is also effectual and irresistible for all whom God call.

k. There is a resistible redemptive grace for some.
Acts 7:51; Rom. 2:4-10; Titus 2:11


No.

3. Warm Cookie Model of Election
a. God draws some effectually (Saul) but enables others to make their own choice (Lydia).


All who come choose to come. Their choice to come is their own. It is not made independent of God's work of regeneration. It is made in accordance with it.

God works in very special ways with some (Cornelius) but works in rather ordinary ways with others (Agrippa).


There is nothing ordinary about the work of God, though some works are surely more noticable than others.

God works against the intent of some (Saul) but works with the intent of others (Cornelius)


Okay. Sure.

God works in different ways with different people and different ways with the same person at different times. This is not contradictory because He does not work in different ways with the same person at the same time.


Yes. That's true. Though, His intent in those He has created for redemption is always that they be conformed to the image of Christ.

God bless
 
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Reformationist

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ContraMundum said:
Seeing these undisputed facts, is it possible that:

a) Men have free will over things God has in His sovereign grace allowed them to have free will in?

To my knowledge, and you may already know this, Calvinists do not deny that man makes choices, and does so according to his own will, regarding the things over which God has given him authority. The point made by reformed Christians is that salvation is simply not one of those things God has left to man's will. It is a covenant established by, and between, the Godhead. The Father ordains the elect unto salvation, the Son accomplishes their reconciliation with the Father in His immeasurable act of atonement, and the Holy Spirit, being sent forth from the Father and the Son, applies the merit of Christ's work of redemption through regeneration and conformation.

Now, I avoid using the term "free" when discussing man's will simply because "free" can be misapplied in such a way as virtually eliminates man's inherent proclivity to seek the desires of his flesh. I do acknowledge that man is a free agent in that his choices are his own and not supplanted by God or any other being. I just do not think "free" is appropriate term as it carries to many inapplicable connotations.

b) Grace is resistable in certain cases, according to His sovereign will?

Man's natural proclivity is to resist the grace of God and, apart from God's intent to overcome man's obstinacy, man will only and always resist.

God bless
 
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Normann

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Salvation is by Christ Jesus not pre-selection...

Romans 3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:

Romans 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

Salvation is by Christ Jesus not pre-selection...

The teaching of John Calvin are false!

IN THE MASTER'S SERVICE,
Normann
 
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cygnusx1

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You know, no one has addressed Wooba's use of Matthew 7:21 which states, "Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven."

I think his argument was that if the Calvinists preaching of predestination is true, than all of us are following God's will.

If fact, Reform, I think even you said this earlier:
The point made by reformed Christians is that salvation is simply not one of those things God has left to man's will. It is a covenant established by, and between, the Godhead. The Father ordains the elect unto salvation, the Son accomplishes their reconciliation with the Father in His immeasurable act of atonement, and the Holy Spirit, being sent forth from the Father and the Son, applies the merit of Christ's work of redemption through regeneration and conformation.

So how can God leave anyone out of heaven according to Matthew 7:21 using this view?

And dude, Cignus, when Contramundum used greek to counter the scriptures you used, you came back with:
I Take scripture at Face value , I don't play around with Greek

That had no weight backing up your position, but instead made you look like you were "tossed back and forth by the waaves, and blown here and there by every wind of teaching..." Not saying that you're false, but definitely not deep in the understanding of your views.
 
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JayJay77 said:
You know, no one has addressed Wooba's use of Matthew 7:21 which states, "Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven."

I think his argument was that if the Calvinists preaching of predestination is true, than all of us are following God's will.

If fact, Reform, I think even you said this earlier:

So how can God leave anyone out of heaven according to Matthew 7:21 using this view?

The "will of the Father" of which Christ speaks is His perceptive will, i.e., obedience to the Laws of God. This is to be distinguished from the decretive will of God, by which He necessitates whatsoever comes to pass, though both primary and secondary means (secondary including our own freely willed choices). The decretive will of God is not what is being spoken of in that passage. For instance, satan cannot claim that he should be rewarded simply because his temptation of people is in accordance with God's decretive will. We see this very issue addressed in Romans 9:

Romans 9:19
You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will

Here we see Paul preemptively addressing what he knows will be the audience's natural response to the idea presented in the previous verse, "Therefore He has mercy on whom He wills, and whom He wills He hardens." You see JayJay, the idea being presented is that God brings His will to pass, either by the dispensation of His grace and mercy or by the witholding of His grace, i.e., hardening. Think about the restraining hand of God as a valve on sinful man's natural proclivity to rebel. When God removes the restraints He is not adding new sin. He is simply allowing the already present sinful nature to gain a greater foothold in man's carnal heart. Many would ask why He would do this and, if He would do this, how is it righteous. As to why He would do it, I will simply acknowledge that the Bible is clear that the people of God are conformed by even the sins of man, their own and their neighbors. Are we not refined by the trials of putting off our old man? Of course we are. We encounter difficult situations because God lovingly brings them in our path that we may be conformed to the image of Christ. Ironically, we tend to view difficult times as a sign of God's displeasure. The second question, the issue of righteousness, is actually a non-issue in this case because God is not obligated to restrain man from being as bad as He is in the first place so if He does restrain man then He is displaying His unmerited mercy and grace. If He does not He has committed no injustice.

Hope that helps. :)

God bless
 
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Normann

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Calvinism teaches just the opposite of scripture.

1 John 5:1
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him.

A Greek word, "pas" meaning any, all or who ever is explained away by the Calvinist to not mean just anyone!

Calvinism is a denial of reality and scripture. It is a system of making up false meanings of words and scriptures in order to protect a man made lie.

Calvinism like other false doctrines avoids the direct simple scriptures by the same system used in Genesis Three.

Genesis 3:4
And the serpent said unto the woman, Ye shall not surely die:

John Calvin is dead but Jesus is alive and is still saying...

Matthew 11:28
Come unto me, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest.

---by the way this word "all" is translated from the same Greek word "Pas" meaning anyone, all, who ever.

2 Tim 2:15
IN THE MASTER'S SERVICE,
Normann
 
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strengthinweakness

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Normann said:
Calvinism teaches just the opposite of scripture.

1 John 5:1
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him.

A Greek word, "pas" meaning any, all or who ever is explained away by the Calvinist to not mean just anyone!

Calvinism is a denial of reality and scripture. It is a system of making up false meanings of words and scriptures in order to protect a man made lie.

Calvinism like other false doctrines avoids the direct simple scriptures by the same system used in Genesis Three.

Genesis 3:4
And the serpent said unto the woman, Ye shall not surely die:

John Calvin is dead but Jesus is alive and is still saying...

Matthew 11:28
Come unto me, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest.

---by the way this word "all" is translated from the same Greek word "Pas" meaning anyone, all, who ever.

2 Tim 2:15
IN THE MASTER'S SERVICE,
Normann

Normann, I ask you in sincerity and genuine love as your Christian brother, do you read the posts of people who reply to you? Calvinists believe, just as much as any other Christians, that Jesus will save whosoever believes that He is born of God and that loves Him in repentance of sin and trusting faith. Calvinists also believe that all who truly come unto Jesus Christ in repentance and faith (and when I say "all," I mean anyone and everyone) will be given His rest. You seem to think that Calvinists hold that some people come to Christ, honestly desiring to be saved, and God turns them away, basically saying, "I'm sorry, but I have not chosen you." This is not what Calvinists believe. Anyone, whosoever, all, every last person, who truly repents of sin and puts his/her faith in Christ as Savior and Lord will be saved. God will turn away no person who truly wants to be saved and who is willing to repent and trust in Jesus Christ.

The question is, how and why does such a person reach that point of wanting to be saved? Does one person come to a point of wanting to be saved because he/she is wiser, more humble, or morally "better" than another person who does not want to be saved? How does a person become willing to repent of sin and trust in Christ as Savior and Lord? Does such a person become willing completely freely, through the inherent goodness of his/her own heart-- a heart that would almost certainly have to be described as being "better" than the heart of someone else who, also completely "freely," chooses to remain unwilling to repent and trust in Christ? How does any person who is "enslaved to sin" (as God's word says that we all are, prior to being saved) make a completely free choice, on his/her own, to repent of sin and trust in Christ? Or, to ask in somewhat of a different way, even if the first step in the choice is "enabled" or "made possible" by God, but the final choice is ultimately up to the person, doesn't that make the person who trusts in Christ wiser, more humble, and/or morally "better" for making that final choice than the one who does not trust in Christ? Think about how Scripture describes the hearts of all sinners before they are saved. How can any unsaved sinner be "wiser" or "better" than any other sinner until God saves him/her? As your brother in Christ and a fellow lover of God and His word, I ask you to please honestly think about and answer these last several questions. Calvinists do believe that whosoever is willing to be saved, and who repents of sin and trusts in Christ, will be saved. The question is, how does one become willing? How does one go from being enslaved to sin to hating it and repenting of it? Who opens our eyes? Who even brings us to the point of fervently desiring salvation and asking for it? Do we do these things ourselves? Is this truly what Scripture teaches?
 
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woobadooba

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Reformationist said:
The "will of the Father" of which Christ speaks is His perceptive will, i.e., obedience to the Laws of God. This is to be distinguished from the decretive will of God, by which He necessitates whatsoever comes to pass, though both primary and secondary means (secondary including our own freely willed choices). The decretive will of God is not what is being spoken of in that passage. For instance, satan cannot claim that he should be rewarded simply because his temptation of people is in accordance with God's decretive will. We see this very issue addressed in Romans 9:

So then, are you trying to say that God would only have certain people obey Him, and His laws, that it isn't God's will that all should obey Him, and thus do His will?

And if God made some to be saved and others to be damned, how could it be possible that anyone could do something other than His will? You see, even if they are bad, they are still being obedient to God, because that is what He made them for--damnation. They are just simply playing the part of the damned, which God supposedly gave them. And what comes with this of course, is bad behavior/lawlessness.

So why then should God hold them accountable for their bad behavior, when it was never His will that they should do His righteous will?

Moreover, if one really takes a close look at your comment above, concerning the law of God, then what is really being said here is that we are saved by keeping the law, and not by God's grace.

You see, when Jesus was speaking about the will of God, He was referring to the will of God in the sense of doing what God says in carrying out His purpose for humankind. And doesn't God encourage all men to repent of their sins, to be saved, and thus fulfill His purpose for them?

If so, would someone who doesn't repent be doing the will of God? Of course not. Yet, how could they repent of their sins, when it was never a part of God's plan that they should have the free-will to do so; and what sense then, would there be in God telling them to repent when they have no hope for salvation, since they were not made to be saved to begin with, but damned?

Now then, what we have here is either a very confused God, or another case of bad exegesis.
 
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Reformationist

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woobadooba said:
So then, are you trying to say that God would only have certain people obey Him, and His laws, that it isn't God's will that all should obey Him, and thus do His will?

Of course not. And, you raise yet another sense in which the "will of God" is employed in the Gospel, i.e., His will of disposition, that is, that which is pleasing and good to the Lord.

And if God made some to be saved and others to be damned, how could it be possible that anyone could do something other than His will? You see, even if they are bad, they are still being obedient to God, because that is what He made them for--damnation. They are just simply playing the part of the damned, which God supposedly gave them. And what comes with this of course, is bad behavior/lawlessness.

So why then should God hold them accountable for their bad behavior, when it was never His will that they should do His righteous will?

Romans 9:19
You will say to me then, "Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?" Will what is molded say to its molder, "Why have you made me like this?"

This is, in a nutshell, exactly what you are asking, yes? If you'll excuse the analogy, it seems as if you are asking me how it is right for God to create a three legged donkey and then condemn it for hobbling as a three legged donkey naturally would. This is a very big issue so I would like to know if I have the just of your protestation before I address it.

Moreover, if one really takes a close look at your comment above, concerning the law of God, then what is really being said here is that we are saved by keeping the law, and not by God's grace.

While I acknowledge man's obligation to obey the Law of God, I do not contend that MAN'S act of doing so serves as the basis for being justified before the judgement seat of the Most High. However, make no mistake, we most certainly ARE saved by works. It is just that it is not OUR works which save us. It is the work of Christ in perfectly obeying the Law of God and dying on behalf of God's elect and, in doing so, fulfilling the covenant that the Godhead had established with the first Adam, and the subsequent imputation of the merits for that perfect obedience, vicarious though it may be, that justifies us before God.

You see, when Jesus was speaking about the will of God, He was referring to the will of God in the sense of doing what God says in carrying out His purpose for humankind.

This is no different than what I have already stated. You see wooba, the Law of God serves three purposes for mankind. It serves as a model for government. It tells man what is expected of him by his Maker. And, establishes his guilt for failing to do what is commanded of him by the Lawgiver.

And doesn't God encourage all men to repent of their sins, to be saved, and thus fulfill His purpose for them?

Two things. First, God commands that all men, everywhere, repent. It is not simply an "encouragement." Man will be held accountable for failing to repent of his wickedness. Second, if God's "purpose" for all poeple was that they be saved, what would stop that?

If so, would someone who doesn't repent be doing the will of God? Of course not.

Tell me something. In the story of Joseph, from the OT, were all the people who trespassed against Joseph doing the "will of God?" Were not their actions, even their sinful actions, ultimately in line with the providential government of the Lord? What was Joseph's reason for not being angry with his brothers who had so terribly betrayed him? Did he rail against them for their sins? Did he rail against God because all these things came to pass that, according to what you profess, were outside of His "will?" No. None of that. In fact, though we know that Joseph must have surely sinned, the Bible never actually mentions him having done so. Joseph's response to some of the most difficult sitations a saint of God has ever encountered? He simply states what he knows to be the truth:

Genesis 50:19,20
Do not fear, for am I in the place of God? As for you, you meant evil against me, but God meant it for good, to bring it about that many people should be kept alive, as they are today.

Who among us is not humbled by this explicit show of faith? Who here has strength of that caliber? Joseph recognized that judging his brothers as they no doubt deserved for their wickedness was not something that God had given in to his hands. He realized that everything that had happened, the betrayal of his brothers, the false accusation of rape by his master's wife, the unjust imprisonment, his release, elevation, status, power, all of it, though freely and willfully brought to pass by those involved, was NEVER outside the bounds of God's providence. He states plainly the doctrine of concurrence here moreso than any other verse in the entirity of Scripture. He says, "you meant evil against me, but God meant it for good." What they meant for evil, God had purposed for good. Were their actions not "the will of God" wooba?

Tell me, Have you ever heard of the doctrine of concurrence, or as it is more commonly known, the doctrine of God's providence?

Yet, how could they repent of their sins, when it was never a part of God's plan that they should have the free-will to do so; and what sense then, would there be in God telling them to repent when they have no hope for salvation, since they were not made to be saved to begin with, but damned?

You know, this is what kills me about you free will activists. You commonly deny attributing your salvation to your will yet every discussion you have comes down to what man wills. First of wooba, man's inability to repent stems from his inherent lack of desire to not repent. God is not imposing an unjust burden upon man. He is not creating man incapable of obedience independant of man's disobedience. Sure, some, maybe even you, will questions the righteousness of rendering upon the progeny of Adam a verdict of universal guilt before God and imposing a penalty of death for the actions of their forefather. But, in doing so, they remove from themselves the possibility of being credited with the righteousness of another and leave themselves no where to turn for redemption. Secondly, God is not obligated to grant a single person eternal life for obedience. The Bible is clear. When you have done every single thing required of you by God, you have done NOTHING but what was expected of you. If you were to keep every law, never fail a single time, both of which are impossible for fallen man, you could not stand before God and claim to deserve a single thing. Shall we now question the holiness of God? Shall we now say to him, as you are doing, "Hey, how is it fair that you hold someone accountable for simply acting in a way that is in accordance with their nature, a nature I might remind you God, that YOU created them with?" I'll relay to you the words of the Apostle:

Romans 9:19,20
But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honored use and another for dishonorable use?

Now then, what we have here is either a very confused God, or another case of bad exegesis.

Or the third possibility, that we have finally heard an explanation of the relationship between God and man that does not place man at the center of the Gospel. No wonder you dislike such an interpretation.
 
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woobadooba

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Reformationist said:
Of course not. And, you raise yet another sense in which the "will of God" is employed in the Gospel, i.e., His will of disposition, that is, that which is pleasing and good to the Lord.



Romans 9:19
You will say to me then, "Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?" Will what is molded say to its molder, "Why have you made me like this?"

This is, in a nutshell, exactly what you are asking, yes? If you'll excuse the analogy, it seems as if you are asking me how it is right for God to create a three legged donkey and then condemn it for hobbling as a three legged donkey naturally would. This is a very big issue so I would like to know if I have the just of your protestation before I address it.



While I acknowledge man's obligation to obey the Law of God, I do not contend that MAN'S act of doing so serves as the basis for being justified before the judgement seat of the Most High. However, make no mistake, we most certainly ARE saved by works. It is just that it is not OUR works which save us. It is the work of Christ in perfectly obeying the Law of God and dying on behalf of God's elect and, in doing so, fulfilling the covenant that the Godhead had established with the first Adam, and the subsequent imputation of the merits for that perfect obedience, vicarious though it may be, that justifies us before God.



This is no different than what I have already stated. You see wooba, the Law of God serves three purposes for mankind. It serves as a model for government. It tells man what is expected of him by his Maker. And, establishes his guilt for failing to do what is commanded of him by the Lawgiver.



Two things. First, God commands that all men, everywhere, repent. It is not simply an "encouragement." Man will be held accountable for failing to repent of his wickedness. Second, if God's "purpose" for all poeple was that they be saved, what would stop that?



Tell me something. In the story of Joseph, from the OT, were all the people who trespassed against Joseph doing the "will of God?" Were not their actions, even their sinful actions, ultimately in line with the providential government of the Lord? What was Joseph's reason for not being angry with his brothers who had so terribly betrayed him? Did he rail against them for their sins? Did he rail against God because all these things came to pass that, according to what you profess, were outside of His "will?" No. None of that. In fact, though we know that Joseph must have surely sinned, the Bible never actually mentions him having done so. Joseph's response to some of the most difficult sitations a saint of God has ever encountered? He simply states what he knows to be the truth:

Genesis 50:19,20
Do not fear, for am I in the place of God? As for you, you meant evil against me, but God meant it for good, to bring it about that many people should be kept alive, as they are today.

Who among us is not humbled by this explicit show of faith? Who here has strength of that caliber? Joseph recognized that judging his brothers as they no doubt deserved for their wickedness was not something that God had given in to his hands. He realized that everything that had happened, the betrayal of his brothers, the false accusation of rape by his master's wife, the unjust imprisonment, his release, elevation, status, power, all of it, though freely and willfully brought to pass by those involved, was NEVER outside the bounds of God's providence. He states plainly the doctrine of concurrence here moreso than any other verse in the entirity of Scripture. He says, "you meant evil against me, but God meant it for good." What they meant for evil, God had purposed for good. Were their actions not "the will of God" wooba?

Tell me, Have you ever heard of the doctrine of concurrence, or as it is more commonly known, the doctrine of God's providence?



You know, this is what kills me about you free will activists. You commonly deny attributing your salvation to your will yet every discussion you have comes down to what man wills. First of wooba, man's inability to repent stems from his inherent lack of desire to not repent. God is not imposing an unjust burden upon man. He is not creating man incapable of obedience independant of man's disobedience. Sure, some, maybe even you, will questions the righteousness of rendering upon the progeny of Adam a verdict of universal guilt before God and imposing a penalty of death for the actions of their forefather. But, in doing so, they remove from themselves the possibility of being credited with the righteousness of another and leave themselves no where to turn for redemption. Secondly, God is not obligated to grant a single person eternal life for obedience. The Bible is clear. When you have done every single thing required of you by God, you have done NOTHING but what was expected of you. If you were to keep every law, never fail a single time, both of which are impossible for fallen man, you could not stand before God and claim to deserve a single thing. Shall we now question the holiness of God? Shall we now say to him, as you are doing, "Hey, how is it fair that you hold someone accountable for simply acting in a way that is in accordance with their nature, a nature I might remind you God, that YOU created them with?" I'll relay to you the words of the Apostle:

Romans 9:19,20
But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honored use and another for dishonorable use?



Or the third possibility, that we have finally heard an explanation of the relationship between God and man that does not place man at the center of the Gospel. No wonder you dislike such an interpretation.

You still haven't provided an adequate answer for the logical fallacies that I pointed out. Nice try though.
 
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woobadooba said:
You still haven't provided an adequate answer for the logical fallacies that I pointed out. Nice try though.

Which "logical fallacies" and who is the one who determines "adequacy?" :scratch:
 
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woobadooba said:
The ones that I pointed out in my questions.

Wow. That helps.

And what determines adequacy in this case is not only scripture, but reason.

Both of which I gladly employ to support my position. Any other ideas?
 
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woobadooba said:
The ones that I pointed out in my questions.

And what determines adequacy in this case is not only scripture, but reason.

Human reason is the problem. As Luther said, it's a harlot. All it will do is find a way to back up your own preconceptions in tough, mysterious matters of faith, and by the attempt to shatter the mystery it will invent a new and strange doctrine if you are not careful.
 
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