Wow Pythons, you are really making the simple complicated.
Who begat the great “I AM”?
God the Father through Mary the virgin.
In the beginning was God and God was with God and God was God.
Yep. That's clear as crystal.
“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places, EVEN AS HE CHOSE US IN HIM BEFORE THE FOUNDATIONS OF THE WORLD”. Eph 1,3
I wonder what Paul would have said about those that reject being chosen "holy and without blame?" What Paul is saying isn't that we were chosen by God to be robots on earth and blindly follow God. To suggest so would be to suggest that God chose Paul to lead murder and persecution of the early Christian church. That Paul was chosen for works of evil before works of good.
God doesn't operate that way.
Everyone who willingly and freely accepts Jesus as Lord and savior is chosen "in Him" from the foundation of the world. What did God the Father "choose" for us in Jesus? To be Holy and Blameless. He didn't chose anything else for us to be "in Christ" other than "holy and blamless."
Eph 1:4
According as
he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world,
that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God”.
Yep. Jesus was always with the Father.
That’s right, “WAS NOT” begat at anytime is what I’ve been saying all along because “Eternal Son” means without beginning or end as in “eternal Generation” or “eternal Son”
So now you're saying Jesus wasn't "begat" by God the Father through Mary?
God was “Incarnated” in Mary and I’m pretty sure you will not find a Catholic who says otherwise.
Through Mary.
Bingo! There it is. That Person who was 100% God and 100% Man was “INCARNATED” in the “Virgin Mary”.
Through Mary.
Abraham begat (bred Sarah) and had a son named Isaac who begat (bred Rebekah) and had a son named Jacob who begat (bred) his wife and so on and so on all through the genealogy listed in Matthew 1 until we get to Joseph who most certainly DID NOT BREED Mary. How could you read all the way through Matthew 1, 1-16 and reach the conclusion that Joseph in ANYWAY contributed to the flesh of Jesus when the Bible is adamant Joseph never even touched her that way.
Pythons, I believe you have mixed up the meaning of the word "begat." Whenever we look at the genelogies in the Bible we see that men "begat" children. We never see that men "begat" their wifes or concubines. The word doesn't mean "breed."
I included an example:
Gen 5:3
And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and
begat [a son] in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth:
Here is Strong definition of the word begat for both Hebrew and Greek.
yalad - a primitive root; to bear young; causatively, to beget; medically, to act as midwife; specifically, to show lineage:--bear, beget, birth((-day)), born, (make to) bring forth (children, young), bring up, calve, child, come, be delivered (of a child), time of delivery, gender, hatch, labour, (do the office of a) midwife, declare pedigrees, be the son of, (woman in, woman that) travail(-eth, -ing woman).
gennaw - from a variation of genoV - genos 1085; to procreate (properly, of the father, but by extension of the mother); figuratively, to regenerate:--bear, beget, be born, bring forth, conceive, be delivered of, gender, make, spring.
Now, as for your question, if you can show me where I suggested that Joseph impregnated Mary I'll give you $100.00.
As if I ever implied God ever existed as flesh beforehand. Start showing me where I even implied this.
I believe I used this line for clarity of my statement. Follow along...
Yes, made of “the seed of David”.” According to the flesh” means born from a woman and if Joseph didn’t “breed” Mary then obviously she is in the seed of David so God Incarnated into the Virgin Mary who was of the seed of David.
In the Bible the genelogy of the tribe always follows the man. Joseph lineage was of King David (Matthew 1:20). This fulfilled the prophecy that the Kingdom would always be ruled be a seed of David. Jesus is commonly referred to as the "Son of David."
Roman 1:3
Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
Mary is never referred to as possesing the lineage of the King of David. However, if you pay close attention to Mary's lineage, you'll find that Mary was of the tribe of Levi.
When did I ever suggest that Jesus was ever flesh in heaven prior to the Incarnation? RND!
Here:
"...how could the Son “ever” be begotten if not eternally (prior to the incarnation)?"
You suggested here that Jesus was begotten "eternally."
The Catholic definition of Michael the arch Angel.
There you go again, it’s like you can’t help it. Jesus IS God; He NEVER existed “as a man”.
He didn't? What happened to that baby Mary had? Wasn't Jesus 100% human? Have a beard? Stand about 6' 4"? Wasn't he circumsized of the eighth day?
Did Paul refer to Him as a man?
Roman 5:15
But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is]
by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
You are either purposely substituting Jesus’ human Nature as if it’s the Person to hide something about your belief that you don’t want the others here to see (because you wouldn’t care what a harlot of Babylon peon thinks) or you are confused.
Hardly. I just don't have any of the baggage associated with trying to make Mary out to be something she wasn't.
We went through this at the first part of the Trinity definition so something is up, isn’t it?
I don't know is "something" up?