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Nonsense, Paul taught justification by grace through faith apart from works of the law, so did James. Your making it simple alright, your oversimplifying the issues and ignoring the context of crucial proof texts.I’ll make it simple for ya . .
Paul teaches justification by FAITH ALONE . Ever hear of ‘sola fide’?
The other apostles taught justification by faith PLUS WORKS.
James 2:24 King James Version (KJV)Nonsense, Paul taught justification by grace through faith apart from works of the law, so did James.
I'm well aware of that, are you aware of the context?James 2:24 King James Version (KJV)
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
James wrote to Jews Ja1:1 . they were under covenant.I'm well aware of that, are you aware of the context?
The book of Romans was to a community of Jews in Rome that were converted at Pentecost, it's understood by most scholars that James was talking to a largely Jewish crowd. Paul was an apostle to the Gentiles but he was clear, there is no difference. James 2 and 1 Corinthians 11 are dealing with the exact same issue, how rich Christians were treating poor Christians. I know the text says like the back of my hand and there is no contradiction unless your just cherry picking isolated texts out of context, which is exactly what your doing.James wrote to Jews Ja1:1 . they were under covenant.
Paul was the apostle to the gentiles (Ro 11:13) and his ministry was NOT under covenant.
When the wider context is considered, I think we are safe to see Romans 4:5 as saying, "But to him who doesn't work [with a mindset as if to try to earn salvation], but [instead] believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness."
For if that were not true then far too many other statements of Scripture would suddenly have become meaningless. For example John 14:21 and John 14:24.
Does your church teach there are two gospels? One for the Gentiles and one for the Jews?You need context? Read Romans . . and then read James . . the context will tell you who they’re written to.
There is only One Gospel (Luke 24:44-50 and 1 Corinthians 15)James wrote to Jews Ja1:1 . they were under covenant.
Paul was the apostle to the gentiles (Ro 11:13) and his ministry was NOT under covenant.
"James wrote to Jews Ja1:1 . they were under covenant.The book of Romans was to a community of Jews in Rome that were converted at Pentecost, it's understood by most scholars that James was talking to a largely Jewish crowd. Paul was an apostle to the Gentiles but he was clear, there is no difference. James 2 and 1 Corinthians 11 are dealing with the exact same issue, how rich Christians were treating poor Christians. I know the text says like the back of my hand and there is no contradiction unless your just cherry picking isolated texts out of context, which is exactly what your doing.
Paul was about as Hebrew of the Hebrews as you can get, he never shunned the Old Testament covenant just realized how it had changed. Paul, Peter and James were all at the Jerusalem Council and were in agreement about the inclusion of the Gentiles so that's a moot point. I've made the point repeatedly that Paul and James are dealing with the same exact thing in James 2 and 1 Corinthians 11, did you miss that or deliberately intend to distract from that key point?"James wrote to Jews Ja1:1 . they were under covenant.
Paul was the apostle to the gentiles (Ro 11:13) and his ministry was NOT under covenant."
Is this true or false?
the key point here is the OP and my posts address that.did you miss that or deliberately intend to distract from that key point?
This is what your offering:the key point here is the OP and my posts address that.
"James wrote to Jews Ja1:1 . they were under covenant.
Paul was the apostle to the gentiles (Ro 11:13) and his ministry was NOT under covenant."
Is this true or false?
Nopefabricating huh?
you don't see a difference here?
You need context? Read Romans . . and then read James . . the context will tell you who they’re written to.
prove that jews were NOT under covenant. . and then prove that gentiles were.
Did you forget we are talking about actual text? Your caught in a downward spiral and your arguments will do nothing but shrink now. It's a sad thing to see but go ahead, make my day.do you have a problem with being honest?
prove that jews were NOT under covenant. . and then prove that gentiles were.
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