Overcoming gridlock between EOs and OOs over Chalcedon's Formula

To EOs: Which do you consider more preferable? To OOs: May one say Christ is "in two natures"?

  • EO reply: Reunion w OOs, even if the debate on natures is unresolved, IF there is no real difference

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • OO reply: No.

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • OO reply: Other

    Votes: 0 0.0%

  • Total voters
    6
  • Poll closed .

rakovsky

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EOs and OOs are very close in traditions and have ancient Christian roots. They are two great communities of Christians in the East. Ideally, they should resolve their differences correctly and reunite. Over the last 1500+ years major, yet unsuccessful, attempts have occurred.

I would love to see EOs and OOs solve their differences and reunite, and that is an aim that I have in writing this. There are really two fundamental obstacles: 1. The debate over the number of natures, and 2. the debate over whether the EO Ecumenical Councils 4-7 must be accepted for reunion.

1. Normally in Christian dialogue one should just be able to define a term and then apply that meaning to common beliefs. But in practice EOs and OOs break down over this.

According to dictionaries, "nature"(physia) means a category, a collection of properties, an essence, or a substance. In Paul's letters, it means a "category", as when he writes that God made man the master of "every nature (physia) of beast". EOs and OOs agree that Christ has two essences and substances, and that he is in two categories: that of man and of God. Further, he has two collections of properties: divine properties and human ones. Therefore, purely as a matter of logic, both sides should agree that Christ is in two natures and has two natures, in those normal senses of the word. My own experience has been that a major portion of OOs can understand and accept this.

However, ant-Chalcedonian rejection of the two natures remaining in Christ goes back 1550 years to the Alexandrian Patriach Dioscorus' deposal of Flavian. This was after St. Cyril had already reunited with John Antiochene and settled their differences over the number of "natures", but before Chalcedon. At Chalcedon, Dioscorus said: "The reason why Flavian was condemned was plainly this, that he asserted two natures after the incarnation." (SOURCE: http://www.ccel.org)

Some OOs today object that "nature" means something like hypostasis or entity, and that saying "in two persons" divides him into two separate entities. However, this is not the normal meaning of "nature", since OOs and EOs would agree that God is in three hypostases, but not in three natures. Further, Chalcedon's Creed says that Christ is in one hypostasis and two natures, so "hypostasis" is not what Chalcedon meant by "natures."

I also disagree that as a matter of language to say something has or is in two natures means that it's divided. Take for example this quote in common language: "Schopenhauer is quite explicit that the world is only to be understood in two natures: namely, representation and will." (Source: https://jordanalexan...dpress.com/91-2) Schopenhauer is not speaking of "two worlds" even though he uses the phrase "in two natures".

Since EOs and OOs agree that Christ has two collections of properties, that he is in two categories, that he has two essences, that he is one being and one hypostasis and one person, I don't see a real substantive difference between EOs and OOs on the Christological issue over Chalcedon other than the semantic issue of "natures". Once the word "nature" is taken out of the discussion, the two sides generally agree on the substance of their Christologies.

I don't find a rational basis for dispute between our churches on this issue. But I am well aware that a major portion of OOs intensely opposes the idea of Chris being "in two natures." In religious discussions in general, you can spend hours talking with an unyielding religious faction and won't make major progress resolving even semantic issues. It could become like arguing over whether a 12 ounce bottle filled with 6 ounces of water is half full or half empty, with one side just repeating variations on the theme that it is or isn't.

For me, this issue is incredibly simple as a matter of logic that debating it looks irrational. Yet I have seen Russians debate an Armenian for months over hundreds of messages on Christology. Our churches have debated this simple semantic issue for 1500+ years and a major, rigid faction can't understand the semantics. Personally, I think it's ideological, whereby minds lock into a certain interpretation because it's fundamental to their community. In those kinds of discussions, you can even care for both sides and have nice talks, but it doesn't make major progress on the semantics.

This gives rise to the next question:

2. Is Chalcedon so important that we must require it as a basis for reunion?

John of Antioch and St. Cyril reunited without St. Cyril fully explicitly affirming that Christ "is in two natures." St. Cyril said things that in my view amount to that, but his statements haven't been explicit enough to persuade a major portion of OOs today.

One of the obstacles though to maintaining that reunion was that it didn't stop P. Dioscorus from deposing Patriarch Flavian for saying Christ still had two natures. If we don't agree as part of our reunion today that "in two natures" is acceptable, then we can be back where we were in 440-450 AD when Flavian was wrongly deposed, since a major portion of OOs still thinks that "in two natures" is heretical. That is, the semantic issue can just turn up again.

Secondly, Ecumenical Councils are pillars for defining Orthodoxy. Is it really acceptable for us to downgrade an Ecumenical Council into a local council if in our view its opponents misunderstand its grammatically correct main faith statement?

To illustrate, would OOs agree to calling Nicea or Ecumenical Councils 2-3 merely local, non-Ecumenical ones because a Christian community misunderstood a term in the Council's main declaration? St. Athanasius at one point said that God "made" Jesus in the sense of performing the incarnation. So imagine if a Trinitarian group rejected the Nicene Creed because they misunderstood its semantics and objected that saying that Jesus was "not made" denied his incarnation. Would the OOs be willing to say that Nicea was not a basis for reunion with the Trinitarian group, who didn't understand the term "not made" in its Nicene context?
 

rakovsky

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Chalcedon must be accepted,
I think it should be, because it's a logically correct statement that Christ is in two natures. But does this mean that "must" is absolute?

We are dealing with a situation where a huge portion of sincere, Christian OOs cannot mentally handle the terminology of one undivided entity in two natures even though in a nonreligious context they would.

Severus of Antioch must be rejected as the Nestorian heretic from the Orthodox POV
What if the difference is semantic and not substantial, ie. what if Severus was just making a semantic mistake about natures and hypostases and did not think that Jesus was ever actually in two hypostases, and would agree that Christ's one person was fully divine and fully human, with both essences and sets of properties?

Either Blessed Theodoret or Theodore of Mopsuestia also talked about a union of hypostases, and I think they were not officially declared heretics and excommunicated, only some of their writings were.
 
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ArmyMatt

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If they mentally cannot handle the terminology and that was it, Constantinople 2 would have fixed that.

As for Severus, his definitions of self subsisting and nonself subsisting hypostases is the very thing he accuses Chalcedon does. Like every heretic, he out thinks himself. Also, if he were not a heretic, the Church would not have named him as one (he was also a monoenergist in addition to being Nestorian).
 
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rakovsky

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If they mentally cannot handle the terminology and that was it, Constantinople 2 would have fixed that.
Yes, Constantinople 2 should have, because it explains what in 2 natures means. But some people's minds cannot handle even rudimentary things.
One time I said that God "made" Jesus, and some Christians jumped on me for allegedly being an Arian, because the Nicene Creed says "not made".

If I didn't find a quote by Athanasius saying "made", I might not have been able to persuade them that saying "made" was OK.

As for Severus, his definitions of self subsisting and nonself subsisting hypostases is the very thing he accuses Chalcedon does. Like every heretic, he out thinks himself. Also, if he were not a heretic, the Church would not have named him as one (he was also a monoenergist in addition to being Nestorian).
Yes, this is the kind of thing he accuses Chalcedon of doing, I understand.

And I understand that the Church labeled Severus heretical.
What I am asking about his heresy is: If his heresy was semantic and he didn't actually think that Jesus actually had two hypostasis at any point, then would he himself still in fact be a heretic?
I gave the example where Theodore M. or Blessed Theodoret said Christ had a union of two hypostases, but I think they were not excommunicated, only some writings.
 
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Orthodoxjay1

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If they mentally cannot handle the terminology and that was it, Constantinople 2 would have fixed that.

As for Severus, his definitions of self subsisting and nonself subsisting hypostases is the very thing he accuses Chalcedon does. Like every heretic, he out thinks himself. Also, if he were not a heretic, the Church would not have named him as one (he was also a monoenergist in addition to being Nestorian).

WOW that fascinating Armymatt, I never knew Severus was a Nestorian. Coptic apologitics say he was defending the Alexandrian school against the Nestorianism that was happening in Antioch, however I never found the arguement that he was fighting Nestorianism that compeling.

Anyways the basis is simple for reunion, The Council of Chalcedon, the Seven Ecumenical Councils matter. So if we drop Chalcedon, then what are our faith?
 
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Sirlanky

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Also I am oriental orthodox, but I don't believe anyone should drop anything. Chalcedon is orthodox, as is her definitions. But I am rather unusual for an oriental. I've even told my priest that we should just accept Chalcedon to end the schism. But we ain't gonna anathematise our fathers. Nor should you anathematise yours
 
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rakovsky

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WOW that fascinating Armymatt, I never knew Severus was a Nestorian. Coptic apologitics say he was defending the Alexandrian school against the Nestorianism that was happening in Antioch, however I never found the arguement that he was fighting Nestorianism that compeling.
The idea is that by talking about two hypostases becoming one hypostasis, Severus was seeing Christ as having a "composite" hypostasis from two different hypostases, which reminds some EOs of what Theodoret was accused by OOs of doing.

However, Severus did not actually think Jesus had two actual hypostases, which is why he called one of them "non-subsistent". It's kind of like saying "non-existent" or hypothetical. He was making an abstract theory that he himself didn't believe ever existed in real life. In other words, Serverus' mistake was abstract and semantic, kind of like saying that there are many Gods, one who exists and hundreds of others who are "false Gods" who never existed. By saying that "there are many Gods", you have semantically endorsed polytheism.

So the follow up question I would ask is: If it's true that Severus' Nestorianism was only semantic, would that make him a Nestorian heretic?

Anyways the basis is simple for reunion, The Council of Chalcedon, the Seven Ecumenical Councils matter. So if we drop Chalcedon, then what are our faith?
One answer is that our faith would just be the real, "substantive" faith that we share, ie. that Christ is one person who is fully divine and fully human in two essences and categories, with both sets of properties, which is the true meaning of Chalcedon. Instead of Chalcedon we would both make another formula that would express the truth that we share and that EO's find in Chalcedon without using debated language about "nature".

The two problems with that answer of a new formula are the ones I mentioned in the OP, eg. is it really the right thing to do to give up a correct formula of an Ecumenical Council because the other side can't mentally handle it?
 
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rakovsky

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Also I am oriental orthodox, but I don't believe anyone should drop anything. Chalcedon is orthodox, as is her definitions. But I am rather unusual for an oriental. I've even told my priest that we should just accept Chalcedon to end the schism. But we ain't gonna anathematise our fathers. Nor should you anathematise yours
I have heard from a number of OOs that "in two natures" is acceptable, but other OOs deny this.
But would OOs who accept the Bible's command to unite with Christians across faction lines, and who accept "in two natures" be willing to break their own church in half in order to unite with EOs? This seems hard to imagine.

I would encourage you to tell other OOs about the grammatical normalcy of "in two natures" though, as I mentioned in the OP.
 
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ArmyMatt

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St Severus is not a Nestorian. That's absolute nonsense. If you are gonna call him a heretic, Monophysite is what he was accused of.

Well, seeing as how he anathematized Eutyches, I think Monophysite is incorrect. I would say miaphysite, but his attempt to explain duality in Christ is Nestorian. And this ain't just me, this is what St Maximos the Confessor says.
 
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rakovsky

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Well, seeing as how he anathematized Eutyches, I think Monophysite is incorrect. I would say miaphysite, but his attempt to explain duality in Christ is Nestorian. And this ain't just me, this is what St Maximos the Confessor says.
I understand. This is why I think that his Monophysitism and Nestorianism are abstract and semantic. He would never agree that Christ has only a divine nature (Monophysitism) or that Christ was ever actually in two persons (Nestorianism). He just used semantics that could imply these things.

To give an example of such implications, how else do you fully logically explain that Christ does not have two categories or collections of properties (human and divine), other than to say that Christ no longer, strictly speaking, has at least one of those two categories? Saying that Jesus is in a new category that includes the human one does not answer why logically the human category is no longer there.
 
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Sirlanky

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It's why I give diaphysitism merit. When explaining how the union happened, sometimes diaphysitism makes more sense and it easier to explain.

But we must remember, not even the holy fathers were infallible. But given the oriental orthodox extreme (to a fault actually) anything Nestorian, it is severely in doubt that he was Nestorian, but rather how some have attempted to explain him. Reunion won't happen whilst either side is demanding the other do anything, except lift the anathemas. And indeed why should either side? It has (I believe) been proven that the modern Oriental church is not heretical, and holds the same faith as he Greeks.
 
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rakovsky

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It's why I give diaphysitism merit. When explaining how the union happened, sometimes diaphysitism makes more sense and it easier to explain.

But we must remember, not even the holy fathers were infallible. But given the oriental orthodox extreme (to a fault actually) anything Nestorian, it is severely in doubt that he was Nestorian, but rather how some have attempted to explain him.
Hello, Silanky, it's nice to hear from you. I know you are a real person, and some OOs are ok with "in two natures", even a OO priest who writes on this topic. And I sympathize with you about lifting anathemas.

You as: "Reunion won't happen whilst either side is demanding the other do anything, except lift the anathemas. And indeed why should either side? It has (I believe) been proven that the modern Oriental church is not heretical, and holds the same faith as he Greeks."

The answer to your question is the dilemma in the OP: Either OOs accept "in two natures" or EOs don't consider Chalcedon ecumenical anymore. And since we agree that "in two natures" is a legitimate statement, then why should EOs give up Chalcedon because people can't mentally handle a correct statement?

If some people do not want to accept the Nicene Creed because they confusedly think that "begotten, not made" in the Creed means a denial of the incarnation, then should the Nicene Creed not be ecumenical anymore?
 
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ArmyMatt

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It has (I believe) been proven that the modern Oriental church is not heretical, and holds the same faith as he Greeks.

if they did, then councils 4-7 would be accepted and Severus would be anathema, and Leo would be a saint.
 
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ArmyMatt

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I understand. This is why I think that his Monophysitism and Nestorianism are abstract and semantic. He would never agree that Christ has only a divine nature (Monophysitism) or that Christ was ever actually in two persons (Nestorianism). He just used semantics that could imply these things.

since the Spirit leads the councils, if that were the case, he never would have been condemned in his person. and, they would have accepted Chalcedon after Constantinople 2 if it were merely semantics.

because we must remember that Constantinople 2 accepted "of two Natures," the Theopaschite Formula (and stuck it in the Liturgy), the Miaphysis statement of St. Cyril, Severus' statements that the 2 Natures after the union can only be separated in theory and that Christ is composite. it also stuck the Creed in the Liturgy and anathematized the 3 Chapters.

if there was any issue with semantics, it would have been taken care of and remember that this theology does not contradict Chalcedon or Ephesus.
 
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rakovsky

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since the Spirit leads the councils, if that were the case, he never would have been condemned in his person. and, they would have accepted Chalcedon after Constantinople 2 if it were merely semantics.
How would you define "nature", such that OOs don't in fact see two natures?
If you define it as categories or essences, OOs will agree with the EO position as 2.
The first obstacle we reach is on how to define "natures". That tells me that their problem is semantic and mental, rather than substantive.

because we must remember that Constantinople 2 accepted "of two Natures," the Theopaschite Formula (and stuck it in the Liturgy), the Miaphysis statement of St. Cyril, Severus' statements that the 2 Natures after the union can only be separated in theory and that Christ is composite. it also stuck the Creed in the Liturgy and anathematized the 3 Chapters.

if there was any issue with semantics, it would have been taken care of and remember that this theology does not contradict Chalcedon or Ephesus.
Yes, it should have been taken care of by accepting "Severus' statements that the 2 Natures after the union can only be separated in theory and that Christ is composite."

Cyril basically said the same thing, using this analogy:
"Let us once more take the example of an ordinary man. We recognise two natures in him; for there is one nature of the soul and another of the body, but we divide them only at a theoretical level," (https://orthodoxjointcommission.wordpress.com/2013/12/15/second-letter-of-cyril-to-succensus/)

Cyril basically recognized two natures after the union "in theory." (Can you remind me where Severus did?)

OOs should just read statements like these and then accept "in two natures". But they are mentally blocked from doing so due to ideological biases in deference to Dioscorus' rejection of Chalcedon, even though Dioscorus did not have any other substantive basis to reject Chalcedon besides his semantic misperception that every being cannot have more than one composite or simple "nature".
 
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ArmyMatt

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How would you define "nature", such that OOs don't in fact see two natures?
If you define it as categories or essences, OOs will agree with the EO position as 2.
The first obstacle we reach is on how to define "natures". That tells me that their problem is semantic and mental, rather than substantive.

well, from the ones I have spoken to they do agree. the issue is the refusal to accept Chalcedon, AND what to do about saints and heretics. I have heard that there are those who are more extreme toward monophytism, but not those I know.
 
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rakovsky

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well, from the ones I have spoken to they do agree. the issue is the refusal to accept Chalcedon, AND what to do about saints and heretics. I have heard that there are those who are more extreme toward monophytism, but not those I know.
Ok, I understand. So for your OO friends, the first question is why should OOs refuse to accept Chalcedon's main creed, if "in two natures" is acceptable? There have been cases where EO churches do not accept every canon in every council but still accept a Council anyway by accepting its creed. OOs who accept "in two natures" could do the same thing. Like the issue of affirming every canon, I consider the issue of anathemas to be secondary to a council's main creed.

Secondly, there are OOs who don't accept "in two natures" for semantic reasons.
And since their objections are semantically illogical, it mentally wears me down and feels not sane when debating it for hours, like debating whether the earth is "round" or whether God "made" Jesus. I don't know what to do when that happens, Matt. It's mentally overpowering for me, because it's a simple issue, yet educated, intelligent people can go on for hours and months denying it.

Normally you should just be able to open a dictionary, see that "natures" means essences or categories, and have a normal discussion in maybe 15 minutes. But that doesn't happen here.

There is one OO archbishop who as I understand it says that Christ has one nature - "the divine one", and that Christ is a divine person, not a human person, in accordance with divinization of the human nature:
http://www.christianforums.com/threads/abp-petrosian-on-armenian-christology.7938598/#post-69424056
However, as Paul Y. suggests on that thread, my citations has been so controversial, that some OOs assert that I have mistranslated him and that an Armenian must read the Armenian original, which I provided, for himself.
 
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Sirlanky

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if they did, then councils 4-7 would be accepted and Severus would be anathema, and Leo would be a saint.

He is a st. St Leo the great. But I do have a question for you. Do you believe everything that the holy councils said it infallible?
 
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