Orthodoxy and Calvinism in Dialogue

ArmyMatt

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Original topic pertains to predestination. Do EO reject Predestination?

depends on how one defines it. yes, we believe in it because there are many things that were foreordained by God by His action and by His will. no in the sense of how John Calvin defined it.
 
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abacabb3

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I will follow up about salvation, but admiral akbar warns me its a trap.

That being said, what I am even grappling with is the fact there is clearly a free will. Some people's wills are more inclined towards God than others. But, then I have these clear statements of Scripture that say God essentially begins the work.

I can get into more detail, but it is my contention that the church fathers taught this:

"The Divine protection then is inseparably present with us, and so great is the kindness of the Creator towards His creatures, that His Providence not only accompanies it, but actually constantly precedes it...And when He sees in us some beginnings of a good will, He at once enlightens it and strengthens it and urges it on towards salvation, increasing that which He Himself implanted or which He sees to have arisen from our own efforts." (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 8)

So, is it objectionable that God gets the "ball rolling" so to say? Can God essentially be the one who plants the seed and as it starts to grow on its own, waters it, and as it grows some more, sends sunlight onto it? Would these metaphors be untrue?
 
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abacabb3

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Well then this is heretical. Man is inclined towards sin only not completely overtaken by it.

But all men sin by their free will, so we need not draw any other larger conclusions that no one is without excuse as all fall short from the glory of God.

Thus Christians are predestined to restore that divine image and likeness which was distorted by the fall. There is no other predestination other than becoming sons of God.

The debate is over what role God has in making non-believers into believers in a sense wider than "if you're lucky enough to hear the Gospel preached in a convincing way and you in your own good sense accept it, you're saved." Because, I don't think the majority of church fathers taught this (nor, aside from an Augustine, were they explicitly extremely monergistic, may I add.)

Irenaeous 180ad:

If then the advent of the Son comes indeed alike to all, but is for the purpose of judging, and separating the believing from the unbelieving. Since, as those who believe do His will agreeably to their own choice, and as, [also] agreeably to their own choice, the disobedient do not consent to His doctrine

Clement of Alexandria in 195 ad spells out this inclination towards sin:

But since free choice and inclination originate sins, and a mistaken judgment sometimes prevails, from which, since it is ignorance and stupidity, we do not take pains to recede, punishments are rightly inflicted. (Bk1 ch17 stromata)

Well this was already answered by Irenaeous in the above statement. Cyprian says the same :

That the liberty of believing or of not believing is placed in free choice.


I can get much more into the fathers, but I will be "brief." While the fathers (and most Calvinists would agree) men's will is "free," the argument is where does the inclination to be faithful originate. Solely in the will of man, or solely in the will of God? Like kids fighting in an argument, who "started it." Can man start it? Or does God always start it?

The contention of the Calvinist is that God always starts it. I believe this is what most of the fathers speak of.

In whom, though now you see Him not, you believe, and believing, rejoice with joy unspeakable and full of glory; 1 Peter 1:8 into which joy many desire to enter, knowing that by grace you are saved, not of works, Ephesians 2:8-9 but by the will of God through Jesus Christ. (Polycarp, Epistle to the Philippians, Chap 1)

"...even to Jesus the author and finisher of our faith. What is this? He has put the Faith within us. For He said to His disciples, You have not chosen Me, but I have chosen you John 15:16; and Paul too says, But then shall I know, even as also I have been known. 1 Corinthians 13:12 He put the Beginning into us, He will also put on the End." (Chrysostrom Homily 28 on Hebrews)

What He here intimates is something of this kind, that faith in Me is no ordinary thing, but needs an impulse from above; and this He establishes throughout His discourse, showing that this faith requires a noble sort of soul, and one drawn on by God. (Chrysostrom Homily 45 on the Gospel of John)

"And therefore though in many things, indeed in everything, it can be shown that men always have need of God's help, and that human weakness cannot accomplish anything that has to do with salvation by itself alone, i.e., without the aid of God" (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 6)

"The Divine protection then is inseparably present with us, and so great is the kindness of the Creator towards His creatures, that His Providence not only accompanies it, but actually constantly precedes it...And when He sees in us some beginnings of a good will, He at once enlightens it and strengthens it and urges it on towards salvation, increasing that which He Himself implanted or which He sees to have arisen from our own efforts." (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 8)

So, while the process is certainly synergistic with God and man working hand and hand (Phil 2:12-13), it seems to me that the fathers are not meaning that free will is enough to begin the existence of faith, nor is it enough to carry on the desire to be obedient to God.

So, if the origin of faith begins with God and not man, and after that point man never operates apart from God inclining the man's heart, this seems to me a very active role of God and clearly saying so is not heretical.
 
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Ignatius21

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I will follow up about salvation, but admiral akbar warns me its a trap.

That being said, what I am even grappling with is the fact there is clearly a free will. Some people's wills are more inclined towards God than others. But, then I have these clear statements of Scripture that say God essentially begins the work.

I can get into more detail, but it is my contention that the church fathers taught this:

"The Divine protection then is inseparably present with us, and so great is the kindness of the Creator towards His creatures, that His Providence not only accompanies it, but actually constantly precedes it...And when He sees in us some beginnings of a good will, He at once enlightens it and strengthens it and urges it on towards salvation, increasing that which He Himself implanted or which He sees to have arisen from our own efforts." (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 8)

So, is it objectionable that God gets the "ball rolling" so to say? Can God essentially be the one who plants the seed and as it starts to grow on its own, waters it, and as it grows some more, sends sunlight onto it? Would these metaphors be untrue?

Thanks for bringing this up. I'm actually surprised, in fact shocked, that you have quoted St. John Cassian as voicing what you contend was normative among the Church Fathers. And you will find that the Orthodox probably could not agree more. Cassian has long been revered as a Saint in Orthodoxy, and his Conferences are very much a nearly definitive set of works on what could generally be considered Eastern Orthodox theology.

First let me address your quote from St. John Cassian in context, and provide some interaction with it. Then let me address your last point about "getting the ball rolling."

You quoted from Conference 13, Ch. 8. And yes, the dialogue at that point--and all others--very clearly establishes that God's grace precedes all human activity, whether of willing or of doing. It establishes that man can do nothing on his own volition to save himself, or to orient himself toward God. In a sense God gets the ball rolling, and when man responds with even the slightest inclination toward God, this small spark is fanned into a flame. So yes, Cassian quite agrees that God's grace is absolutely necessary for man to even begin to respond to God. He wrote strongly against Pelagian ideas to the contrary.

He writes such things as what you quoted, as well as:

And therefore though in many things, indeed in everything, it can be shown that men always have need of God's help, and that human weakness cannot accomplish anything that has to do with salvation by itself alone, i.e., without the aid of God, yet in nothing is this more clearly shown than in the acquisition and preservation of chastity. (Ch. 6)

By this very instance which you bring forward we can still more clearly prove that the exertions of the worker can do nothing without God's aid. For neither can the husbandman, when he has spent the utmost pains in cultivating the ground, immediately ascribe the produce of the crops and the rich fruits to his own exertions, as he finds that these are often in vain unless opportune rains and a quiet and calm winter aids them, so that we have often seen fruits already ripe and set and thoroughly matured snatched as it were from the hands of those who were grasping them; and their continuous and earnest efforts were of no use to the workers because they were not under the guidance of the Lord's assistance. As then the Divine goodness does not grant these rich crops to idle husbandmen who do not till their fields by frequent ploughing, so also toil all night long is of no use to the workers unless the mercy of the Lord prospers it. (Ch. 3)

But notice what else Cassian writes in this dialogue, and notice that he is perfectly capable of holding God's sovereign grace and sovereign initiative, in tension with man's free response, and without anything like what would later be known as "unconditional election" or "limited atonement." Note specifically:

For the purpose of God whereby He made man not to perish but to live for ever, stands immovable. And when His goodness sees in us even the very smallest spark of good will shining forth, which He Himself has struck as it were out of the hard flints of our hearts, He fans and fosters it and nurses it with His breath, as He wills all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth, for as He says, it is not the will of your Father which is in heaven that one of these little ones should perish, and again it says: Neither will God have a soul to perish, but recalls, meaning that he that is cast off should not altogether perish. For He is true, and lies not when He lays down with an oath: As I live, says the Lord God, for I will not the death of a sinner, but that he should turn from his way and live. Ezekiel 33:11 For if He wills not that one of His little ones should perish, how can we imagine without grievous blasphemy that He does not generally will all men, but only some instead of all to be saved? Those then who perish, perish against His will, as He testifies against each one of them day by day: Turn from your evil ways, and why will you die, O house of Israel? Ib And again: How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her chickens under her wings, and you would not; and: Wherefore is this people in Jerusalem turned away with a stubborn revolting? They have hardened their faces and refused to return. The grace of Christ then is at hand every day, which, while it wills all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth, calls all without any exception, saying: Come unto Me, all you that labour and are heavy laden, and I will refresh you. Matthew 11:28 But if He calls not all generally but only some, it follows that not all are heavy laden either with original or actual sin, and that this saying is not a true one: For all have sinned and come short of the glory of God; nor can we believe that death passed on all men. And so far do all who perish, perish against the will of God, that God cannot be said to have made death, as Scripture itself testifies: For God made not death, neither rejoices in the destruction of the living. Wisdom 1:13 And hence it comes that for the most part when instead of good things we ask for the opposite, our prayer is either heard but tardily or not at all; and again the Lord vouchsafes to bring upon us even against our will, like some most beneficent physician, for our good what we think is opposed to it, and sometimes He delays and hinders our injurious purposes and deadly attempts from having their horrible effects, and, while we are rushing headlong towards death, draws us back to salvation, and rescues us without our knowing it from the jaws of hell. (Ch. 7)

What? Here he flatly contradicts the reading given to the verse from 2 Peter (debated ad nauseum just the other day on the Soteriology forum!) by Reformed interpreters. Indeed, he (remember, the same guy you've quoted as representing your views as supported by the Fathers) labels it impious and blasphemous to imagine that God limits his call of salvation, to only a select few.

Ch. 9 is even more astonishing, in that he both shows that God directs and rules our wills and desires, and yet that our wills and desires are active in salvation:

Whence human reason cannot easily decide how the Lord gives to those that ask, is found by those that seek, and opens to those that knock, and on the other hand is found by those that sought Him not, appears openly among those who asked not for Him, and all the day long stretches forth His hands to an unbelieving and gainsaying people, calls those who resist and stand afar off, draws men against their will to salvation, takes away from those who want to sin the faculty of carrying out their desire, in His goodness stands in the way of those who are rushing into wickedness. But who can easily see how it is that the completion of our salvation is assigned to our own will, of which it is said: If you be willing, and hearken unto Me, you shall eat the good things of the land, Isaiah 1:19 and how it is not of him that wills or runs, but of God that has mercy? Romans 9:16 What too is this, that God will render to every man according to his works; Romans 2:6 and it is God who works in you both to will and to do, of His good pleasure; Philippians 2:13 and this is not of yourselves but it is the gift of God: not of works, that no man may boast? Ephesians 2:8-9 What is this too which is said: Draw near to the Lord, and He will draw near to you, James 4:8 and what He says elsewhere: No man comes unto Me except the Father who sent Me draw Him? John 6:44

I won't quote the entirety of Chapters 11 or 12. I will only say to read them, reread them, and reread them yet again. You will notice that in his dialogue, he basically plays both sides of the tennis court, almost volleying the ball back and forth with himself. No sooner does one side raise a good point in favor of God's grace preceding our free will, then the other side raises a good point in favor of God's grace assisting the movement of our free will. And you'll notice this: Cassian never actually resolves the question. And in this is great wisdom. He doesn't resolve it, because he cannot resolve it, and neither can we.

He just fairly well concludes and summarizes it in Ch. 13:

And so the grace of God always co-operates with our will for its advantage, and in all things assists, protects, and defends it, in such a way as sometimes even to require and look for some efforts of good will from it that it may not appear to confer its gifts on one who is asleep or relaxed in sluggish ease, as it seeks opportunities to show that as the torpor of man's sluggishness is shaken off its bounty is not unreasonable, when it bestows it on account of some desire and efforts to gain it. And none the less does God's grace continue to be free grace while in return for some small and trivial efforts it bestows with priceless bounty such glory of immortality, and such gifts of eternal bliss. For because the faith of the thief on the cross came as the first thing, no one would say that therefore the blessed abode of Paradise was not promised to him as a free gift, nor could we hold that it was the penitence of King David's single word which he uttered: I have sinned against the Lord, and not rather the mercy of God which removed those two grievous sins of his, so that it was vouchsafed to him to hear from the prophet Nathan: The Lord also has put away your iniquity: you shall not die. 2 Samuel 12:13 The fact then that he added murder to adultery, was certainly due to free will: but that he was reproved by the prophet, this was the grace of Divine Compassion. Again it was his own doing that he was humbled and acknowledged his guilt; but that in a very short interval of time he was granted pardon for such sins, this was the gift of the merciful Lord.

Cassian simply accepts the tension between two seemingly irreconcilable poles, and worships God in the mystery of his own salvation. This is the Orthodox position. This is what we believe now. I will say you will find some Orthodox writers who are so opposed to one pole or the other, that they seem to teeter on the brink of abandoning the balance. But over thousands of years and millions of Christians, it's to be expected.

So together with St. John Cassian, Orthodoxy acknowledges God's divine providence and his foreordained plans, that include the salvation of men. It also acknowledges with him, that this plan is to call every man to the salvation announced in the Gospel. Salvation is an accomplished fact. Humanity is set free, satan is overthrown, death is swallowed up in victory, all things are being set right again, Christ reigns even now as sovereign over all creation, the Law is abolished, God's "Divine Dilemma" (as defined by St. Athanasius) is resolved, and all is right. Now, the messengers are to spread that good news far and wide, and tell all the liberated men and women that they no longer have to live in darkness, sin and fear of death.

Thus God's sovereign activity precedes all of this. And when the preaching of the Gospel is understood as sacramental, we understand that Christ is actually present even in the preaching of his Word! When one tells the gospel to another, it isn't just Bob preaching to Sue. It's Christ in Bob preaching to Sue. And when that small spark begins to glow, it is Christ in Sue responding in faith. This is synergism. Not "God does this much, and I finish it off with the rest." God does all, and we are active in that. Care to explain that? I don't. I stand in awe of it.

Think of it like this. The Gospel is a light. When we shine that light onto someone still lost in darkness, he begins to see around him. He begins to see that he does have a choice, to leave the prison he's been standing in. He also sees all the worldly junk he's built up, and all the dirt that's stuck to him, and realizes he has to leave that behind to follow the light that leads out of the prison. Thus is born the conflict between Spirit and Flesh that St. Paul describes so eloquently. The warfare of, by a later term, the gnomic will of man.

I will leave it at that, for now. If you believe that John Cassian's writings are normative for how we should understand God's sovereignty, and man's freedom, and the Scriptures' teaching on salvation, then we have no argument after all.
 
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Ignatius21

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I will follow up about salvation, but admiral akbar warns me its a trap.

That being said, what I am even grappling with is the fact there is clearly a free will. Some people's wills are more inclined towards God than others. But, then I have these clear statements of Scripture that say God essentially begins the work.

I can get into more detail, but it is my contention that the church fathers taught this:

"The Divine protection then is inseparably present with us, and so great is the kindness of the Creator towards His creatures, that His Providence not only accompanies it, but actually constantly precedes it...And when He sees in us some beginnings of a good will, He at once enlightens it and strengthens it and urges it on towards salvation, increasing that which He Himself implanted or which He sees to have arisen from our own efforts." (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 8)

So, is it objectionable that God gets the "ball rolling" so to say? Can God essentially be the one who plants the seed and as it starts to grow on its own, waters it, and as it grows some more, sends sunlight onto it? Would these metaphors be untrue?

Let me also recommend that you please read this article: The Curious Case of St. John Cassian | Orthodoxy and Heterodoxy

I find no fault with it. It touches on much of what we've discussed before.

Notice also that at the core of Pelagius' teachings, Augustine's rebuttals, and Cassian's writings, are concerns about God's Divine Energies.

These issues are not idle speculation of philosophers. They are the very heart and basis for understanding the nature of God (Trinity, Christology) and by extension, the nature of salvation (Soteriology).

Note, also, that "semi-pelagianism" is an historical construction that never actually existed as an actual viewpoint in the Christian Church. Those Calvinists who proclaim (with R. C. Sproul) that "Cassian was the father of the heresy of Semi-Pelagianism" are so far from the realm of fact, it's very nearly shameful.
 
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ArmyMatt

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So, is it objectionable that God gets the "ball rolling" so to say?

nope, He is the Author and Finisher of our faith

Can God essentially be the one who plants the seed and as it starts to grow on its own, waters it, and as it grows some more, sends sunlight onto it? Would these metaphors be untrue?

that is also true, and a good way of looking at it. He plants the seed. He provides the soil, the sunlight, the water, etc. but the seed has to be (in man's case) willing to grow.
 
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abacabb3

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nope, He is the Author and Finisher of our faith; that is also true, and a good way of looking at it. He plants the seed. He provides the soil, the sunlight, the water, etc. but the seed has to be (in man's case) willing to grow.

Then, I don't see a ton of disagreement here. I will add, though, that there are examples where GOd does "overpower" the will by changing the inclinations of one's heart, which St. John Cassian writes:

For if we say that the beginning of free will is in our own power, what about Paul the persecutor, what about Matthew the publican, of whom the one was drawn to salvation while eager for bloodshed and the punishment of the innocent, the other for violence and rapine? But if we say that the beginning of our free will is always due to the inspiration of the grace of God, what about the faith of Zaccheus, or what are we to say of the goodness of the thief on the cross, who by their own desires brought violence to bear on the kingdom of heaven and so prevented the special leadings of their vocation? But if we attribute the performance of virtuous acts, and the execution of God's commands to our own will, how do we pray: Strengthen, O God, what You have wrought in us; and The work of our hands establish Thou upon us? (Chap 11, Conference 13)
 
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abacabb3

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Thus God's sovereign activity precedes all of this.
I will return to this point.

First, to quote St. John of Cassian (who I see as a moderate between AUgustine who sees an extremely active role for GOd to affect the will and perhaps anyone who voices an opinion that our will is divorced from God) I will add this for context:

"These two then; viz., the grace of God and free will seem opposed to each other, but really are in harmony...[F]or when God sees us inclined to will what is good, He meets, guides, and strengthens us... And again, if He finds that we are unwilling or have grown cold, He stirs our hearts with salutary exhortations, by which a good will is either renewed or formed in us." (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 11)

"And therefore it is laid down by all the Catholic fathers who have taught perfection of heart not by empty disputes of words, but in deed and act, that the first stage in the Divine gift is for each man to be inflamed with the desire of everything that is good, but in such a way that the choice of free will is open to either side: and that the second stage in Divine grace is for the aforesaid practices of virtue to be able to be performed, but in such a way that the possibilities of the will are not destroyed: the third stage also belongs to the gifts of God, so that it may be held by the persistence of the goodness already acquired, and in such a way that the liberty may not be surrendered and experience bondage. For the God of all must be held to work in all, so as to incite, protect, and strengthen, but not to take away the freedom of the will which He Himself has once given." (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 18)

Think of it like this. The Gospel is a light. When we shine that light onto someone still lost in darkness, he begins to see around him. He begins to see that he does have a choice, to leave the prison he's been standing in. He also sees all the worldly junk he's built up, and all the dirt that's stuck to him, and realizes he has to leave that behind to follow the light that leads out of the prison.

Two points. First, even St. John of Cassian taught that man is always free, but that God's grace precedes a man who's will is virtuous or inclined towards Him. I believe this is exactly what Clement is referring to in CHapter 31? in his letter. Justification is not the result of our works, our wisdom, or anything of ours, but the will of God.

Second, if God is the initiator, without getting into headier matters regarding the freedom of the will (because for predestination to stand or fall, free will is not going to change it one way or the other), then I see that there is a very real sense in which God elects. God elects some "nice" people, He elects some bad people too. And I don't see God as an impersonal initiator, but a very personal one. Lastly, without the work of God, no one can believe and no one is saved.
 
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ArmyMatt

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Then, I don't see a ton of disagreement here. I will add, though, that there are examples where GOd does "overpower" the will by changing the inclinations of one's heart, which St. John Cassian writes:

For if we say that the beginning of free will is in our own power, what about Paul the persecutor, what about Matthew the publican, of whom the one was drawn to salvation while eager for bloodshed and the punishment of the innocent, the other for violence and rapine? But if we say that the beginning of our free will is always due to the inspiration of the grace of God, what about the faith of Zaccheus, or what are we to say of the goodness of the thief on the cross, who by their own desires brought violence to bear on the kingdom of heaven and so prevented the special leadings of their vocation? But if we attribute the performance of virtuous acts, and the execution of God's commands to our own will, how do we pray: Strengthen, O God, what You have wrought in us; and The work of our hands establish Thou upon us? (Chap 11, Conference 13)

nowhere in that quote though does it say God, overrides their will. He certainly inspires, initiates, and supplies, but He does not override and force.
 
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Ignatius21

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I certainly see where you're going with this. It almost seems like the differences here are matters of emphasis. For instance, the parts you've placed in bold, need to be held in tension with the parts I'll place in bold.

I will return to this point.

First, to quote St. John of Cassian (who I see as a moderate between AUgustine who sees an extremely active role for GOd to affect the will and perhaps anyone who voices an opinion that our will is divorced from God) I will add this for context:

I wouldn't say he was moderate, I'd say he was Orthodox. I cannot see anything in his Conferences that seems at odds with Irenaeus, Clement, Justin or others. This particular Conference was basically written as a dialogue between someone representing a Pelagian view, and someone representing an Augustinian view.

To highlight a few things that stand out to me...

"These two then; viz., the grace of God and free will seem opposed to each other, but really are in harmony...[F]or when God sees us inclined to will what is good, He meets, guides, and strengthens us... And again, if He finds that we are unwilling or have grown cold, He stirs our hearts with salutary exhortations, by which a good will is either renewed or formed in us." (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 11)

To say that God "overpowers" the will would be to say that two wills are, in fact, opposed to each other. This is the very thing that John says seems to be the case, but in reality is not. If we could time-warp back and ask him, I have to doubt whether he would agree that God's will overpowers ours. Rather he would say, as he has already said, that it may seem that God's will overpowers ours (the appearance) but in reality they are still in harmony.

"And therefore it is laid down by all the Catholic fathers who have taught perfection of heart not by empty disputes of words, but in deed and act, that the first stage in the Divine gift is for each man to be inflamed with the desire of everything that is good, but in such a way that the choice of free will is open to either side: and that the second stage in Divine grace is for the aforesaid practices of virtue to be able to be performed, but in such a way that the possibilities of the will are not destroyed: the third stage also belongs to the gifts of God, so that it may be held by the persistence of the goodness already acquired, and in such a way that the liberty may not be surrendered and experience bondage. For the God of all must be held to work in all, so as to incite, protect, and strengthen, but not to take away the freedom of the will which He Himself has once given." (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 18)

I've put into bold, three stages that he identifies. In Protestant categories, you could say that the latter two stages roughly equate to "sanctification" and "perseverance," and Orthodox and Reformed would agree that these are synergistic stages (though we'd disagree on the essential meaning of synergy perhaps). But Cassian says quite clearly that even in the first stage, God implants in us a desire for himself, "but in such a way" that our wills are not overpowered, that is, "that the choice of free will is open to either side." I cannot reconcile this image with the necessary corollaries of the Calvinist view of regeneration, especially "irresistible grace."

I again cannot see how St. John Cassian's writings could be construed to support a Calvinist view of human and divine wills. But it syncs perfectly with an Orthodox view of the wills. Just as Christ's two wills cooperated, each free, and yet in perfect harmony (despite some appearances in Scripture that could almost seem as though they were in fact struggling), so too God implants within us a desire for salvation that we could not have on our own--but in such a way that we cooperate freely, and are not overpowered. And we again stress that we do not presume to explain HOW this can be. We only witness that it is so. Just like Cassian.

Two points. First, even St. John of Cassian taught that man is always free, but that God's grace precedes a man who's will is virtuous or inclined towards Him. I believe this is exactly what Clement is referring to in CHapter 31? in his letter. Justification is not the result of our works, our wisdom, or anything of ours, but the will of God.

I'm not sure I quite understood what you were saying in the underlined part...could you please clarify? if you're saying that God doesn't wait to give his grace to someone, until that man's will is already inclined toward him, then we agree, and so does John Cassian. And nobody thinks that justification is a result of our works. Let's all agree to set aside the confusing and fiendishly complicated system of "merits" that arose in the middle ages, which I do think bordered on teaching that we actually do something to merit salvation in ourselves. Or at least, was very prone to being interpreted that way by all but the most highly trained scholastic theologians who could grasp the distinctions.

Second, if God is the initiator, without getting into headier matters regarding the freedom of the will (because for predestination to stand or fall, free will is not going to change it one way or the other), then I see that there is a very real sense in which God elects. God elects some "nice" people, He elects some bad people too. And I don't see God as an impersonal initiator, but a very personal one. Lastly, without the work of God, no one can believe and no one is saved.

We can continue to pursue this. Predestination is a dicey subject in the writings of the Fathers, even those who affirm it. Mainly what i see, is that they affirm its reality but refuse to tread any further in explaining how it works. Some, like John Chrysostom, say it is impious and even destructive for us to put our minds down that path.

Certainly God's predestination is an act of love, and a very personal act. I was always bothered by the post-Reformation scholastic emphases on God's "divine decrees," which seemed so coldly logical that god was almost represented as an omniscient computer that made logical decisions from on high, and very far away. We do nothing to earn or warrant God's love, and thus God's election is not based on anything we do, or anything he foresees us doing that could somehow curry his favor. And yet, if his calling of us happens in such a way as to be harmonious with our own wills, then so too must his predestination be harmonious with our own wills.

From our perspective, bound in space and time, God chose us "before" even the creation of time itself. From God's perspective, I can only imagine that time has no bearing, and all is spread before him at once. So in some sense, his choosing of us, and our choosing of him, are the same event. We are free, he is sovereign, and it all just works out. I really don't lose any sleep over predestination.
 
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abacabb3

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nowhere in that quote though does it say God, overrides their will. He certainly inspires, initiates, and supplies, but He does not override and force.

To be fair, John of Cassian does actually refer to the will of some men being "overpowered" if you will, because he elaborates it later in the chapter:

We know that Balaam was brought to curse Israel, but we see that when he wished to curse he was not permitted to. Abimelech is preserved from touching Rebecca and so sinning against God. Joseph is sold by the envy of his brethren, in order to bring about the descent of the children of Israel into Egypt, and that while they were contemplating the death of their brother provision might be made for them against the famine to come: as Joseph shows when he makes himself known to his brethren and says: Fear not, neither let it be grievous unto you that you sold me into these parts: for for your salvation God sent me before you; and below: For God sent me before that you might be preserved upon the earth and might have food whereby to live. Not by your design was I sent but by the will of God, who has made me a father to Pharaoh and lord of all his house, and chief over all the land of Egypt.

So, exactly how God works with a man's will is mysterious, but He does and He can bring about the desired result.
 
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abacabb3

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I wouldn't say he was moderate, I'd say he was Orthodox. I cannot see anything in his Conferences that seems at odds with Irenaeus, Clement, Justin or others.

He might have taken a stronger stand in the direction of the sovereignty of God as opposed to the independence of the will, though I can concede (just have not read enough of those other guys) that whenever Justin Marty and Irenaeus speak of free will that their statements are highly qualified. Because John of Cassian very carefully qualifies his.

This particular Conference was basically written as a dialogue between someone representing a Pelagian view, and someone representing an Augustinian view.

To be fair, being that Augustine was orthodox, it would be too strong to say that he view Augustine as too extreme, as Augustine's interpretation was considered legitimate, unlike the Pelagian view which was condemned.

To say that God "overpowers" the will would be to say that two wills are, in fact, opposed to each other.

There are instances, that John of Cassian makes clear, where God does convert contrary wills (i.e. "And again, if He finds that we are unwilling or have grown cold, He stirs our hearts with salutary exhortations, by which a good will is either renewed or formed in us.")

Further, as everyone here concedes, God is always the initiator. Sometimes God works with a Saul of Tarsus who is seething in hatred against God and in other times He works with a Lydia, who for all intents and purposes was seeking God. Yet, God can bring about the desired result in both by beginning a work and perfecting their faith.

This is the very thing that John says seems to be the case, but in reality is not. If we could time-warp back and ask him, I have to doubt whether he would agree that God's will overpowers ours.

We have no need to speculate, because we have what he has written, though men back then are men like now, they change their opinions over a lifetime and they do emphasize different things at different times. I learned this in my studies of Muslim mystic Al Ghazali.

Rather he would say, as he has already said, that it may seem that God's will overpowers ours (the appearance) but in reality they are still in harmony.

They are in harmony because God has made it so, however. It has to do with God's power. If you read Chrysostrom's interpretations of key Calvinsitic passages (Phil 1:29, John 6:44, Eph 2:8) he goes into some detail about this.

For example, Homily 8 on Philippians:

"For it is God that works in you both to will and to work. If He does Himself work in us to will, how do you exhort us? For if He works Himself even the will, the words, which you speak to us, have no meaning, 'that you have obeyed'; for we have not 'obeyed'; it is without meaning that you say, 'with fear and trembling'; for the whole is of God. It was not for this that I said to you, for it is He that works in you both to will and to work, but my object was to relieve your anxiety. If you will, in that case He will work in you to will. Be not affrighted, you are not worsted; both the hearty desire and the accomplishment are a gift from Him: for where we have the will, thenceforward He will increase our will. For instance, I desire to do some good work: He has wrought the goodwork itself, and by means of it He has wrought also the will. Or he says this in the excess of his piety, as when he declares that our well-doings are gifts of grace.

As then, when he calls these gifts, he does not put us out of the pale of free will, but accords to us free will, so when he says, to work in us to will, he does not deprive us of free will, but he shows that by actually doing right we greatly increase our heartiness in willing. For as doing comes of doing, so of not doing comes not doing... Here he shows, and makes it a ground of confidence, that He is sure to work in us, for it is His will that we live as He desires we should, and if He desires it, He Himself both works in us to this end, and will certainly accomplish it; for it is His will that we live aright. Do you see, how he does not deprive us of free will?"


But Cassian says quite clearly that even in the first stage, God implants in us a desire for himself, "but in such a way" that our wills are not overpowered, that is, "that the choice of free will is open to either side." I cannot reconcile this image with the necessary corollaries of the Calvinist view of regeneration, especially "irresistible grace."

This may be the case, though there are Protestants such as Lutherans that believe in total depravity and resistable grace, so the two don't necessarily go hand and hand.

However, I think you are emphasizing something a tad incorrect about John of Cassian's thinking here. Because, he does speak of the conversion of contrary wills, but maintains that God does not violate the principles of free will in order to bring about the desired result. This includes the example of Balaam son of Peor, which he uses. What John of Cassian, and Chrysostrom in the previous passage, are positing is that God can cooperate with man's free will but in such a way (because he is omniscient and omnipotent after all) to work in a man's heart in such a way to always create the desired result.

This is precisely what Augustine speaks about in detail in On Grace and Free Will. While Augustine brings such thinking to its logical result (if God can begin a work and see to it to bring a certain result, this gives God the power to predestinate), other Christian thinkers are silent on this conclusion but do not deny or contradict it. I presume they wanted to avoid some of the conclusions you can draw from this, in which Augustine did, i.e. why does God obviously work in some in such a way and not others? We have no indication that the other orthodox thinkers had in mind God works in all men to have faith identically. They simply do not confront the issue, as far as I know, while Auustine does.

so too God implants within us a desire for salvation that we could not have on our own

Does God implant this into everyone who has ever existed?

if you're saying that God doesn't wait to give his grace to someone, until that man's will is already inclined toward him, then we agree, and so does John Cassian.

What John of Cassian actually states is that God initiaates in men already more predisposed towards faith and in then men that are not. You state only the former. Yet, the Scripture and tradition say, that God initiates in both. This is my contention.

Certainly God's predestination is an act of love, and a very personal act...And yet, if his calling of us happens in such a way as to be harmonious with our own wills, then so too must his predestination be harmonious with our own wills.

In a way, we are the ingredients God has to work with. He is the cook. So, God will work with our will, but lest we forget, it is He and not us who is the cook. And, He can do unthinkable things, using sometimes the worst ingredients and managing them into a delicious dish.

So in some sense, his choosing of us, and our choosing of him, are the same event.

It gets real dicey when we speculate over the nature of time. That being said, being that God has perfect foreknowledge of everything and is omnipotent, He can work what He wills at the time of His choosing.
 
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buzuxi02

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The debate is over what role God has in making non-believers into believers in a sense wider than "if you're lucky enough to hear the Gospel preached in a convincing way and you in your own good sense accept it, you're saved." Because, I don't think the majority of church fathers taught this (nor, aside from an Augustine, were they explicitly extremely monergistic, may I add.


I have no problem with God working in man from start to finish, for this is true. In fact I have no problem with saying God overpowers the will of man. My problem would lie in saying that God only overpowers man's inclinations, every time. That's where Orthodoxy would find fault.

Most Christians are what they are, because they are born into it, which is the case for most.. Christians in the west have been Christians for over a millennium because the various monarchs of the past adopted Christianity.

This simple faith was then passed down from one generation to the next, and this is precisely why the west is Christian. And these people were real Christians, they didn't nor needed a Damascus moment.

Our Christian culture is now deteriorating here in the west not because God has decided to move on to Africa, a place where Christianity has found fertile ground in the past 100 years, but because our society no longer promotes Christianity in any sense.

Christian values and beliefs in the west is deteriorating for the obvious factors not because God has moved on. That is parents do not know the faith nor to pass it on, and their children are even encouraged to explore other religions in which they eventually adopt these other religions or adopt nothing at all. Its obvious then that Calvinism is wrong, simply by looking at the demographics.

The reality of what actually takes place and has taken place on the ground throughout history simply does not support Calvinism.

The fact is many have apostasized in the early church during the Christian persecutions of the first three centuries, culminating in the third and fourth century controversies on whether lapsed Christians should be allowed back into the church. Many thought it was impossible basing it on Heb 6.4-6, and this was what was widely held. Meaning Christianity never believed in once saved always saved.




The contention of the Calvinist is that God always starts it. I believe this is what most of the fathers speak of.

In whom, though now you see Him not, you believe, and believing, rejoice with joy unspeakable and full of glory; 1 Peter 1:8 into which joy many desire to enter, knowing that by grace you are saved, not of works, Ephesians 2:8-9 but by the will of God through Jesus Christ. (Polycarp, Epistle to the Philippians, Chap 1)

"...even to Jesus the author and finisher of our faith. What is this? He has put the Faith within us. For He said to His disciples, You have not chosen Me, but I have chosen you John 15:16; and Paul too says, But then shall I know, even as also I have been known. 1 Corinthians 13:12 He put the Beginning into us, He will also put on the End." (Chrysostrom Homily 28 on Hebrews)

What He here intimates is something of this kind, that faith in Me is no ordinary thing, but needs an impulse from above; and this He establishes throughout His discourse, showing that this faith requires a noble sort of soul, and one drawn on by God. (Chrysostrom Homily 45 on the Gospel of John)

"And therefore though in many things, indeed in everything, it can be shown that men always have need of God's help, and that human weakness cannot accomplish anything that has to do with salvation by itself alone, i.e., without the aid of God" (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 6)

"The Divine protection then is inseparably present with us, and so great is the kindness of the Creator towards His creatures, that His Providence not only accompanies it, but actually constantly precedes it...And when He sees in us some beginnings of a good will, He at once enlightens it and strengthens it and urges it on towards salvation, increasing that which He Himself implanted or which He sees to have arisen from our own efforts." (St. John of Cassian, Conference 13, Chap 8)

So, while the process is certainly synergistic with God and man working hand and hand (Phil 2:12-13), it seems to me that the fathers are not meaning that free will is enough to begin the existence of faith, nor is it enough to carry on the desire to be obedient to God.

So, if the origin of faith begins with God and not man, and after that point man never operates apart from God inclining the man's heart, this seems to me a very active role of God and clearly saying so is not heretical.

Yes, but not in the most literal way. Many of those quotes are cases where the individual is baptized and has received the Holy Spirit. As Paul said to Timothy, "Wherefore I put thee in remembrance that thou stir up the gift of God, which is in thee by the putting on of my hands." (2Tim 1.6) Man must cultivate his spiritual growth not allow the Holy Spirit to lie dormant or worse flee.
 
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abacabb3

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I have no problem with God working in man from start to finish, for this is true. In fact I have no problem with saying God overpowers the will of man. My problem would lie in saying that God only overpowers man's inclinations, every time.

No one contends that He does. My only contentions is that God begins the stirrings of faith in every man.

Most Christians are what they are, because they are born into it, which is the case for most...This simple faith was then passed down from one generation to the next, and this is precisely why the west is Christian. And these people were real Christians, they didn't nor needed a Damascus moment.

Not everyone has a "Damascus moment." I did, my wife didn't. But I do believe God works the faith in all, whether subtly or by hammering you over the head if need be.

While there are obvious geographic constraints on the spread of CHristianity (in light of Romans 10:14, this is expected), but I think that God has known this since before the world began. I don't think God had CHrist came to earth closer to EUrope because He loved the west more than He loved those who were born in the orient. I believe GOd does not see souls as races.
 
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ArmyMatt

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To be fair, John of Cassian does actually refer to the will of some men being "overpowered" if you will, because he elaborates it later in the chapter:

We know that Balaam was brought to curse Israel, but we see that when he wished to curse he was not permitted to. Abimelech is preserved from touching Rebecca and so sinning against God. Joseph is sold by the envy of his brethren, in order to bring about the descent of the children of Israel into Egypt, and that while they were contemplating the death of their brother provision might be made for them against the famine to come: as Joseph shows when he makes himself known to his brethren and says: Fear not, neither let it be grievous unto you that you sold me into these parts: for for your salvation God sent me before you; and below: For God sent me before that you might be preserved upon the earth and might have food whereby to live. Not by your design was I sent but by the will of God, who has made me a father to Pharaoh and lord of all his house, and chief over all the land of Egypt.

So, exactly how God works with a man's will is mysterious, but He does and He can bring about the desired result.

yes, but in neither case does God override man's will. not permitting Barlaam to speak does not over ride his will, but his power of speech. and the will of God affected what happened to Joseph, but again, He does not override anyone's will. he used the wills of both Joseph and his brothers to show His own.
 
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abacabb3

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yes, but in neither case does God override man's will. not permitting Barlaam to speak does not over ride his will, but his power of speech. and the will of God affected what happened to Joseph, but again, He does not override anyone's will. he used the wills of both Joseph and his brothers to show His own.

John of Cassian says, "And again, if He finds that we are unwilling or have grown cold, He stirs our hearts with salutary exhortations, by which a good will is either renewed or formed in us."

So, God can form a new will or new inclinations. Again, I cannot tell you exactly how God can bring about the desired result in man, as free will is a matter of speculation and not something that can be tested empirically. But God can take a man, with free will, and bring about His desired result.
 
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ArmyMatt

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John of Cassian says, "And again, if He finds that we are unwilling or have grown cold, He stirs our hearts with salutary exhortations, by which a good will is either renewed or formed in us."

So, God can form a new will or new inclinations. Again, I cannot tell you exactly how God can bring about the desired result in man, as free will is a matter of speculation and not something that can be tested empirically. But God can take a man, with free will, and bring about His desired result.

oh you are totally right in your last statement. ain't got no qualms with that. God stirs, inspires, nudges, etc. but again, even that quote by St John Cassian does not say that He overrides man's will.
 
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abacabb3

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oh you are totally right in your last statement. ain't got no qualms with that. God stirs, inspires, nudges, etc. but again, even that quote by St John Cassian does not say that He overrides man's will.

The terminology is "forms," which implies the creation or making of something (but more accurately the molding of something, as the man's will already exists but it is being changed or morphed in some way.)

For what it is worth, John of Cassian is not the deciding factor on this issue (as him, Augustine and Prosper of Aquitine all weighed in on this.) My point in quoting John of Cassian is that even from his perspective, God is the initiator in the process of salvation. As long as we all agree about that, then the disagreement is not over predestination itself, but different doctrines (i.e. limited atonement).
 
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As long as we all agree about that, then the disagreement is not over predestination itself, but different doctrines (i.e. limited atonement).

well, it seems we do. but that is not predestination.
 
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