Orthodoxy and Calvinism in Dialogue

abacabb3

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Yes, but the issue of whether or not God can be described using the term "jealous" has nothing to do with mine or your soteriological assumptions. What obviously occurred is that you tried undercutting my argument against praying to Saints by saying I was misportraying God's nature.

However, you are probably embarrassed that you forgot that God being a "jealous God" is almost proverbial, and now you are simply backtracking instead of showing some humility and admitting you messed up.
 
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Ignatius21

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The conversation is beginning to spread out in multiple directions again, so I'll try to respond in a broad sense.

One problem I see with your argumentation recently, is that you are torching quite a lot of strawmen--and overlooking context. Let's take a few.

I don't know enough about Orthodoxy, but I would point to icons specifically (by God's grace I will never pray to an image) and the banning of credo-baptism, which used to be the primary form of baptism and then, at the very least, existed side by side with paedobaptism.

By God's grace, nobody will ever pray to an image. The Orthodox certainly don't. St. John of Damascus gives pretty much our definitive statement on the nature and use of icons in worship. Nobody prays to images. We pray to God. We do not worship and serve creatures. We do, however, venerate those in whom God's likeness has been perfected. And thus it's really more proper to say we venerate Christ in his saints than to say we venerate the saints themselves.

And to suggest that credobaptism was "banned" is kind of silly, don't you think? Come to an Orthodox service on the Saturday before Pascha (Easter) and you'll see plenty of adults baptized.

I know you say this with sarcasm, but you have a serious underriding presumption: that God would protect the institutional Church from all error for all time. However, this is not true, and if your underriding presumption is wrong it throws everything built upon it into question.

Actually there was no sarcasm intended. And no, I've never suggested that God would protect his "institutional Church" from all error for all time. Rather, I believe that Christ will guide his Church into all truth, because Christ is truth. Clearly people have been wrong on key points from the beginning. It has taken centuries to sort out and sift through the opinions and teachings of many generations of Christians, to sort true doctrine from heresy, and to determine what is allowable on a spectrum of belief and practice.

In other words, I believe that what we would see as time marched on, would be the Church coalescing around the truth as "iron sharpened iron" and false beliefs and practices fell away. But I absolutely do not claim that nobody in the Church has ever erred or made a mistake.
*** Now, I'll address baptism since you've brought up more details about it. We can get into more depth, but as the thread isn't about infant baptism I'll try to keep it brief. In short, I've studied this in great detail some years ago, when I first concluded that the Presbyterians were correct and the Baptists were not.

For example, for the first full 200 years of the church, all we have recorded is either the baptism of believers, or warning against baptizing children. We even have a list of baptism instructions (the Didache) that goes into detail what to do if there isn't enough "running water," yet contains no such directions about handling infants. Plus, we have doctors of the Church for the first 400 years, who had Christian parents, yet they were unbaptized as children.

So, we have the first 200 years where there is only an argument of silence in favor of paedobaptism, while there is actual historical evidence that it was not practiced and discouraged.

Again, I've read more papers, debates and books on this than I care to revisit. Unless major historical summaries are all wrong, the earliest recorded, explicit mention of this practice is from Tertullian--this is true, he warned against it. But why? Visiting the broader context of his writings, he generally also warned against baptizing even younger adults. He was part of the stream of thought that took a very rigid approach to handling sins committed after baptism, which led naturally to a postponing of baptism until a later age. Tertullian of course eventually even left the Church and joined a heretical sect that took an extremely rigorist and harsh attitude toward post-baptismal sins. He is thus not properly even considered a church father by the Orthodox, because he left the Church.

Now, why would he bring up a point in opposition to a practice that wasn't a concern? The obvious answer is that infant baptism was already being practiced. Where, and how widely, etc. cannot be answered with certainty. But the next recorded mention of it was by Origen, who claimed the practice had apostolic roots. He, too, is not considered a Church father due to his more extreme philosophical views. Cyprian then mentions infant baptism also as an established and ancient practice.

So, you seem to have pulled out the one isolated reference that supports your position. Your "actual historical evidence" amounts to the isolated opinion of one man who whose baptismal views led him into a heretical sect...and the fact that he voiced opposition at all shows that there was something there to oppose. His rejection of infant baptism was tied to ideas of post-baptismal sin that soon after, came to also be identified as erroneous by the larger Church. Thus, what I see, is the Church working exactly as one would expect it to. Over time, correct belief and practice are sorted out and established as normative, and erroneous views fade into the background or at least into relative obscurity.

Then, we have the next 200 or even 300 years where the practice was in question as it grew increasingly widespread.

So, for the first four, or even five centuries of Christianity, where every essential Christological and soteriological doctrine was expounded upon, they just happened to have baptism all wrong?

"Every" essential doctrine by your own count, perhaps, but there were still more Ecumenical Councils to be held. The Church's doctrines on Christ's two wills, and on the nature and purpose of icons, are just as soteriological as what preceeded them.

Nobody has said the had baptism "all wrong." Yes, the practice was in flux. Yes, it changed over time and from place to place. It took time to sort out what was right from what wasn't. It isn't like there weren't dubious views of the Trinity and Christology in the years before they really came to be expounded upon.

What's easier to believe, that the early church had it wrong for 400 years or so when it got all the important stuff right, or that baptism was got all wrong with a bunch of other stuff that didn't exist for the first 400 years (Mariology, icon worship, purgatory, and other widespread unbiblical doctrines.)

There's a very compelling historical argument here. I just can't ignore it.

Yes, but GOd allowed his church by your own definition to get baptism wrong for over 400 years. Why wouldn't that be just as jaw dropping?
I love how you just kind of slip things in, under the radar. I will exercise my line-item veto power and point out (again) that nobody worships icons, and that the "widespread unbiblical doctrines" are unbiblical only by your opinion. And I've already said that I believe that infant baptism was practiced from much earlier times than what you're claiming, and it was common enough not to warrant any particular opposition. And if people were wrong about the particulars of baptism (Constantine apparently was, having waited until his dying days to be baptized himself), it is not as jaw-dropping as the idea that God failed to do something about it.

If it is, but the more compelling argument from the Bible and tradition is that it's not. Then, we have other doctrines which by your own admission don't make a ton of sense, but because the other stuff is right they gotta be right. Now, if you think certain doctrines are clearly wrong and opposed to tradition (i.e. baptism) it is easy to see how the idea that the institution is always right all the time just doesn't fly, especially when by your own admission the institution got things wrong.

The trail of strawmen continues, as once again, I have never said that "the institution" never got anything wrong. I believe the "more compelling argument from the Bible and Tradition" is that infant baptism is proper. I think Baptists start from the wrong questions anyway. The real question to be asking, to frame the whole matter, is "What does the Bible teach about covenant initiation," of which baptism is the Christian fulfillment. Viewed that way, infant baptism cannot help but be the correct practice. It's as clear and obvious to me, and always was, as apparently the Real Presence is to you. I hear Baptist arguments against paedobaptism and I have to wonder "Are we reading the same Bible?" But then you probably feel the same way in return :)

God, in His wisdom, just let the true Church to screw up baptism for its first few centuries of existence, meaning 20 generations or so of people died with this central doctrine messed up.

Maybe, the way God guides His church is not as neat and tidy as you would like it to be, and the way He does it holds a lot more mystery than you may be comfortable with.

It isn't neat and tidy at all. Which is part of the reason I find Orthodoxy credible. We're as dysfunctional as Church history itself :)

False. Tertullian opposed it in one of his orthodox works AND the practice was not wide spread for centuries, by your own admission.
...
Find an earl;y prayer for the dead from the first five centuries of the church that is akin o the prayers to Saints, Mary and etcetera.
...
You mean the same church that was split over the day to celebrate Easter?

Wow, your statement about the Church having no disagreement about aq list of stuff only to find only one thing on that list actually applies, is pretty sad. I don't want to be disrespectful, but you need to withdraw this point.

I don't need to be disrespectful either, but I think you're trying to make me say what you want me to say. Or, I just suck at expressing myself. I've already addressed Tertullian. I'm not sure what you mean by your second question, unless you are showing what nobody denies, namely, that the formalilzed and ritualized expression of prayers for and to Mary and the Saints grew and evolved and deepened over time. There's no argument here. I believe the basis for it was present from the start, and its expression deepened and widened. In some cases I think it grew to such extremes as to be almost comical. But I accept that as part of the ebb and flow of life within the Church. It takes lots of time for things to be sifted through.

The argument over the date of Easter is really irrelevant. It was resolved by allowing each group to observe its own date. The essential matter is that all agreed that it was proper to celebrate Pascha/Easter as the central holiday of the liturgical year. So they differed on the date. Is this significant?

The points you bring up do not challenge our claim to be in communion with the Church through the ages. You seem to have a misconception that Orthodoxy believes itself to be pure, pristine, with no record of error or mistake or scandal. This is not the case. It is a divine-human organism that most of the time, looks all too human. But at its heart is the Eucharist, the very presence of Christ himself, who is Truth. So yes, Christ will guide his Church into all truth, because he is the Truth.
 
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abacabb3

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While I take some time to address some thoughts more carefully, and respond to another debate, if you want to see some neat pics of my trip to Cambodia (and musings about works-based religion) check out here.

I have class tomorrow night (job stuff) and I'm not sure if I will get to it.

I'll have a response to ArmyMatt.. As for Ignatius, my homework is to revist my last response to you, namely the comment, "[T]here is no notable opposition to such things as real presence, infant baptism, prayers for the dead, prayers to saints, liturgical calendars, observance of holy days, and the like." You even repeat the same line of reasoning when you say paedobaptism "was common enough not to warrant any particular opposition," when in your own post you talk about Tertullian's very specific opposition.

My point is that you made a vast over generalization and its simply not true. You should withdraw the point. If it helps at all, I will clarify that "credo-baptism" isn't banned for converts to EO (I figured that's assumed), but rather, a parish cannot decide to not paedo-baptize. THat's the point I am trying to convey.
 
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Ignatius21

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While I take some time to address some thoughts more carefully, and respond to another debate, if you want to see some neat pics of my trip to Cambodia (and musings about works-based religion) check out here.

I don't know anything about Cambodia. The stories you tell are interesting. Especially the part about American Cambodians paying to put up stunning temples for the sake of Karma and the next life. Maybe if they paid to fix up those apartment buildings, they'd really do some good.

The same could be said for the Medici family.

I have class tomorrow night (job stuff) and I'm not sure if I will get to it.

I'll have a response to ArmyMatt.. As for Ignatius, my homework is to revist my last response to you, namely the comment, "[T]here is no notable opposition to such things as real presence, infant baptism, prayers for the dead, prayers to saints, liturgical calendars, observance of holy days, and the like." You even repeat the same line of reasoning when you say paedobaptism "was common enough not to warrant any particular opposition," when in your own post you talk about Tertullian's very specific opposition.

Yes. And I pointed out that this opposition isn't terribly significant, except that it establishes that the practice was at least common enough to warrant his apparently isolated warning against it. Yet that warning was rooted in a fundamental misunderstanding of baptism, sin and forgiveness that was not uncommon in his era. What is notable is that this attitude toward "no forgiveness of sin after baptism" and its related practice of postponing baptism as long as possible, was critiqued and countered by slightly later fathers, and the Church as a whole put an end to that misunderstanding. No such critique was ever made toward infant baptism, nor correction of course.

Tertullian wasn't arguing against infant baptism as such, but against "baptism too early" so to speak, of which infant baptism is the most extreme case. At least that's how I read him, and I find it the more compelling interpretation.

On both biblical and historical grounds, I find the case for credobaptism (to the exclusion of paedobaptism) to be razor thin.

There was disagreement over the date of Pascha, but no disagreement over its observance. There were variations in the length and practice of Lent, but no disagreement over whether Pascha should be preceded by a period of fasting and preparation. And so on.

My point is that you made a vast over generalization and its simply not true. You should withdraw the point. If it helps at all, I will clarify that "credo-baptism" isn't banned for converts to EO (I figured that's assumed), but rather, a parish cannot decide to not paedo-baptize. THat's the point I am trying to convey.

I hope I've clarified the point, but I do not think I should withdraw it. Unless you can show me significant, sustained opposition to the Real Presence, infant baptism (know of any clear opposition beyond the isolated comment of Tertuallian?), prayers for the dead, the use of a liturgical calendar, or any of the other things I mentioned. Those may quite possibly have been there. I don't ask you to show me that things were vague, or poorly systematized, or generally absent in writing. I'm asking for the presence of specific and noteworthy opposition that found support in a wider audience.

And again I'd ask why it's more credible or plausible to believe that general silence on a matter, followed by eventual acceptance, is indicative of corruption and error, rather than to believe it's indicative of widespread acceptance and therefore ancient precedent. You have shown that it might be possible that the Church screwed things up, maybe, but not why it's more plausible to believe it to be the case.

As to your point, you're right, a parish cannot decide to only "credobaptize." To do so would be to break from Orthodox sacramental theology, which would be to break communion with the Church. Now, if a person wanted to delay his own baptism for some reason, or chose to delay a child's baptism...I think that would be a case-by-case matter, although I'm not aware of any instance of the latter case. If someone has joined the Orthodox Church, he's also submitting to the teaching of its bishops, so there would be no reason not to baptize a child. But I guess stranger things have probably happened somewhere.
 
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Yes, but the issue of whether or not God can be described using the term "jealous" has nothing to do with mine or your soteriological assumptions. What obviously occurred is that you tried undercutting my argument against praying to Saints by saying I was misportraying God's nature.

However, you are probably embarrassed that you forgot that God being a "jealous God" is almost proverbial, and now you are simply backtracking instead of showing some humility and admitting you messed up.

I forgot nothing. I am fully aware of this greatly misunderstood and frequently misapplied passage about a jealous God. All it really means is that we should not allow anything to take the place of God in our lives (like money, fame, power, pleasure, etc.). Asking for the prayers of saints and honoring them for their love of God doesn't put them in the place of God.
 
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prodromos

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It's not. But, what is the basis and when did it start?
Love between ALL members of Christ's body whether deceased or not.

We continue to pray for our loved ones after they have passed away and we ask for the prayers of righteous men and women who stand before the throne of God, who because of their love for us, have great miracles occur either directly as a result of their prayers or through their relics and icons.
 
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prodromos

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It's not. But, what is the basis and when did it start?
I believe the basis for this is very simply love. Love for one another is what makes us true persons, in the image and likeness of God, and I don't believe we lose that when we die. In the parable of the rich man and Lazarus, even though the rich man was far from being a righteous man, he still cared for his brothers still living. His prayers and intercessions were ineffective however, given that he was not a righteous man. Christ gave us a commandment to love one another, and that love exists between all members of His body, whether living or having died in Christ (and we know God is the God of the living).
When our loved ones die, we are not privvy to where they will stand at the last judgement, only God knows that, so because of our love for them we continue to pray for them that God will have mercy on them. This is encouraged by God and there have been numerous accounts of God revealing to people that their prayers have been heard.
In the case of the Saints, God has revealed to us his righteous friends and their love for us is manifest in the innumerable miracles which have occurred through their relics, icons, and simply through their intercessions for us. We in turn grow in love for them because of their goodness towards us, and so love grows between all the members of Christ's body.
 
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ArmyMatt

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Plus, there are no recorded examples of anyone praying to a Saint such as Mary for over 500 years.

incorrect. from an epitaph from the year 250: Aschandius, my father, dearly beloved of my heart, with my sweet mother and my brethren, remember your Pectorius in the peace of the Fish

and another from the year 300: Atticus, sleep in peace, secure in your safety, and pray anxiously for our sins

both are requests of the departed

from the year 350 on the Rylands Papyrus: Mother of God, listen to my petitions; do not disregard us in adversity, but rescue us from danger

from St Methodius' Oration on Symeon and Anna in 305: Hail to you for ever, Virgin Mother of God, our unceasing joy, for to you do I turn again. Hail, you treasure of the love of God. Hail, you fount of the Son’s love for man.

and again from the same: Therefore, we pray you, the most excellent among women, who glories in the confidence of your maternal honors, that you would unceasingly keep us in remembrance. O holy Mother of God, remember us, I say, who make our boast in you, and who in august hymns celebrate the memory, which will ever live, and never fade away.

and again from the same, to St Symeon: And you also, O honored and venerable Simeon, you earliest host of our holy religion, and teacher of the resurrection of the faithful, do be our patron and advocate with that Savior God, whom you were deemed worthy to receive into your arms

and that was just a quick google search. so yes there is a ton of stuff before 500 AD
 
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abacabb3

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incorrect. from an epitaph from the year 250: Aschandius, my father, dearly beloved of my heart, with my sweet mother and my brethren, remember your Pectorius in the peace of the Fish

and another from the year 300: Atticus, sleep in peace, secure in your safety, and pray anxiously for our sins

both are requests of the departed

from the year 350 on the Rylands Papyrus: Mother of God, listen to my petitions; do not disregard us in adversity, but rescue us from danger

from St Methodius' Oration on Symeon and Anna in 305: Hail to you for ever, Virgin Mother of God, our unceasing joy, for to you do I turn again. Hail, you treasure of the love of God. Hail, you fount of the Son’s love for man.

and again from the same: Therefore, we pray you, the most excellent among women, who glories in the confidence of your maternal honors, that you would unceasingly keep us in remembrance. O holy Mother of God, remember us, I say, who make our boast in you, and who in august hymns celebrate the memory, which will ever live, and never fade away.

and again from the same, to St Symeon: And you also, O honored and venerable Simeon, you earliest host of our holy religion, and teacher of the resurrection of the faithful, do be our patron and advocate with that Savior God, whom you were deemed worthy to receive into your arms

and that was just a quick google search. so yes there is a ton of stuff before 500 AD

I appreciate the links and while Methodius clearly has a prayer to Simeon/Peter and Ryland Papyrus contains another prayer (though in that same find were gnostic works), the others really aren't prayers for intercession.

The best evidence is Methodius, and even though Ambrose or Augustine would have opposed him, it does show that in certain areas prayers to the dead held traction, presuming it is not a later interpolation. But because you have brought this up, I withdraw my point that the practice was without precedent.
 
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ArmyMatt

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the others really aren't prayers for intercession.

you said earlier that intercession was not the issue, because you agree that saints pray for us (ie Revelation), but the issue was whether or not we could ask them. in each of the epitaphs, the living is asking the departed for prayers. that is asking saint intercession.

and even though Ambrose or Augustine would have opposed him

same Catholic site had quotes by St Augustine concerning the martyrs, although they were not specific questions for petitions.
 
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Dorothea

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To be fair, John of Cassian does actually refer to the will of some men being "overpowered" if you will, because he elaborates it later in the chapter:

We know that Balaam was brought to curse Israel, but we see that when he wished to curse he was not permitted to. Abimelech is preserved from touching Rebecca and so sinning against God. Joseph is sold by the envy of his brethren, in order to bring about the descent of the children of Israel into Egypt, and that while they were contemplating the death of their brother provision might be made for them against the famine to come: as Joseph shows when he makes himself known to his brethren and says: Fear not, neither let it be grievous unto you that you sold me into these parts: for for your salvation God sent me before you; and below: For God sent me before that you might be preserved upon the earth and might have food whereby to live. Not by your design was I sent but by the will of God, who has made me a father to Pharaoh and lord of all his house, and chief over all the land of Egypt.

So, exactly how God works with a man's will is mysterious, but He does and He can bring about the desired result.
God does not interfere with our free will. According to Fr. Thomas Hopko, He can't. It goes against who He is... paraphrasing.

In any case, I'm no scholar. I'm just enjoying reading this thread and thought I'd drop off this link to Fr. Tom's podcast on Predestination, Providence, and Prayer. I thought it might be useful here as you and my brothers were discussing our view of predestination. :)

http://www.ancientfaith.com/podcasts/hopko/predestination
 
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Dorothea

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From the link, there is the transcript on predestination that Fr. Tom talks about that I would like to post here to help folks out:

First of all: predestination. It is a clear teaching of Holy Scripture that there is predestination, without any doubt. God predestines things to be the way they are, according to his divine foreknowledge, and in the Holy Scripture, those two issues are always together—foreknowledge and fore-ordering, or predestining, or “predestinating,” as it says in the King James version.

There is a foreknowledge, that God knows all things—real, possible, eventual, all that could be, all that would be—and that God really does have that knowledge. He has that knowledge before he even creates. If God is going to create, he knows what is going to happen in his creation. He knows it because he is God.

Some people could say, “How could God know what is going to happen before it actually happens?” The answer is, because He is God, and God knows all things, and he knows all things so perfectly that he knows not only what people would do, but he knows what they will do, and he knows what people will do in every single detail of their life, in every single breath that they breathe, and every single act that they make. This is what it means to be God.

Some people could say, “That is just totally nonsensical. You cannot know something before it actually happens.” We would say, “Oh no, that is not true. God knows things, and for God there is no before and after.” It is not like God knows before. God knows all things out of his eternity. He knows all realities, all eventualities, all that would be, could be, how people would act in every certain situation.

That is simply an understanding of what it means to be God, and that God creates the world with that knowledge, and all of the things that will happen, or could happen, or might happen, or if things were different, would be different—we believe that all of that is in the mind of God. We speak humanly of the mind of God, but God does not have a mind; he is a mind; he is beyond a mind. God is beyond anything that we can imagine.
Scripture definitely teaches us, and the Revelation teaches us, and anyone who has an experience of God knows that that is what it means to be God. If God were not that way, he would just not be God. He would be acting like creatures act, bound by time and space, bound by limited information, bound by waiting to see, actually, what people will say and do, in order to know how to respond to that.

The Christian claim is certainly that God has “foreknowledge.” That is a technical term in scripture—foreknowledge—that he fore-knows all things, and that all things that happen, they happen according to his foreknowledge. It is on the basis of his foreknowledge that he makes his plan, that he works out his plan in relationship to creatures, who are free.
Here we want to say a very important thing. Some people say, “If God has the foreknowledge, then everything has to be absolutely the way it is. It cannot be different. If God knows today what is going to happen on earth tomorrow, then it’s got to happen, because that is what he knows.” Here, I would say that simply shows very poor thinking, because you can look at it a completely different way, and you have to. You have to say, “Things do not happen because God knows them, God knows them because they happen.”

For example, if tonight I go to church, and God knows from all eternity that I will go to church, freely, voluntarily, I will get outside and walk up to the monastery, or I will jump in my car and drive up to the monastery; God knows whether or not I will freely do that. If, in fact, I won’t go—if, in fact, I will stay home because I have a stomach ache, or I stay home because I fell asleep, or I stay home because I have some work to do and I choose to do that rather than go to church, then that is what God knows.

My action determines God’s knowledge, and that is very important. God knows things because I will freely do them. I don’t do them because God knows them.

In human life you could have an analogy of that. For example, if you have a very wise person, a very wise person can predict another person’s behavior. A wise person could say, “If Joe gets in this situation, this is surely what he will do.” Why? Because he knows Joe. He knows Joe very well. He knows his attitudes, he knows his behavior, so he knows that: “Oh, if that ever happens, Joe is going to be furious.”

In a human way, a wise person knows that only on the basis of what he actually knows. He knows Joe, he knows that if this or that happens, this is how Joe is most likely to behave, and you might even dare say, it is how Joe certainly will behave, but that’s not the way God does it. God doesn't do it because He just knows what people will or will not do because He knows how they are, but God really knows the actual acts.

For God, there is no past, present, and future. All knowledge of God is in God before anything even happens. All the whole knowledge of creation, the whole knowledge of everything that could be, and would be, and how it will be, is in the divine mind of God before anything creaturely even exists. That would be a dogma of ancient Orthodox Christian faith; there is no doubt about that.

But what we want to see now is that things do not happen because God knows them, God knows them because he knows they will happen. He knows what we will freely do, but our freedom is incredibly important. It is essential to remember that. If God decides to create angels and human beings, and, in some sense, even animals, but certainly let us just focus on human beings—if God creates human beings with freedom, that we can pick and choose to decide what we do or do not do—like whether I’ll go to vespers, or whether I won’t; whether I will help my neighbor, or whether I don’t; whether I will tell the truth, or whether I will lie; whether I will be kind to someone, or whether I will be mean—I have that actual freedom.

Some writers, in fact some very important Christian writers, will say, “God will never violate the freedom of his creature. Once he gives the freedom, he will not violate it.” But I think that we would have to go a step further, on the basis of Scripture and understanding of Scripture in the Tradition of our Church, by our great spiritual teachers, and that is that it is not simply the case that God will not violate our freedom. We have to say something stronger. We have to say, “God cannot violate our freedom.” God cannot force us to do anything at all. He simply cannot do it.

He can do things in the natural order, for example, cause me to break my leg or something like that, but God cannot determine, in any way, how I will relate to my leg being broken—how I will act, what I will choose, what I will do. We have this sovereign freedom given to us by God, that he not only will not violate, but he cannot violate.
What we want to focus on now is that God knows all those things. He makes us free and he knows what we will freely do, in any given circumstance, under any given possibility, within any given condition or situation, God literally knows what we will or will not do, and he knows what we will or will not do before we actually will or will not do it. But he doesn't cause us to will it, or not to will it.
 
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abacabb3

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God does not interfere with our free will. According to Fr. Thomas Hopko, He can't. It goes against who He is... paraphrasing.

In the way we classically define free will, God does not need to "interfere." This is the argument of Cassian, Augustine, and Prosper. God can incline hearts, much as Satanic deception can do the opposite, in which to encourage human behavior one way or the other. Such a notion shouldn't be controversial (among Christians anyway.)

It is in this sense God can bring about His desired result, every time.
 
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ArmyMatt

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In the way we classically define free will, God does not need to "interfere." This is the argument of Cassian, Augustine, and Prosper. God can incline hearts, much as Satanic deception can do the opposite, in which to encourage human behavior one way or the other. Such a notion shouldn't be controversial (among Christians anyway.)

It is in this sense God can bring about His desired result, every time.

I don't think we would disagree with this, but I know a ton of Calvinists who would.
 
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I'm not very knowledgeable about Calvanism. Therefore, can anyone tell me if the following quoted passage from Irvin Yalom in his writings on existential psychotherapy seems accurate?:

“In the sixteenth century John Calvin proposed a theological system that has, ever since, greatly influenced the West’s attitudes toward life purpose. Calvin believed that humans were predestined by God’s grace to be either elected or damned. The elected intuitively knew of their foreordained salvation and, by God’s wish, were to participate actively in the affairs of this world. In fact, Calvin said that a sign that one was of the elect of God was one’s worldly success. The damned, on the other hand, were the failures in worldly life.

The Puritan tradition, influenced by Calvin, and from which we are not yet entirely unshackled, valued sacrifice, hard work, ambition, and social position. Work was considered godly; the devil found work for idle hands. One’s nation was viewed as a rowboat; each person was a part of the crew and had to pull his or her own oar. One could either row or be excess baggage—a parasite on the others. This ethic worked wonderfully well for the economic vitality of the young and developing United States; but for generations of individuals who in one way or another did not feel that they measured up, it set the stage for feelings of guilt and worthlessness.

The Western world has, thus, insidiously adopted a world view that there is a ‘point,’ an outcome of all one’s endeavors. One strives for a goal. One’s efforts must have some end point, just as a sermon has a moral and a story, a satisfying conclusion. Everything is preparation for something else… The Eastern world never assumes that there is a ‘point’ to life, or that it is a problem to be solved; instead, life is a mystery to be lived.”
 
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abacabb3

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it COULD have been a true event that Christ was relating as a parable.

I just don't think that interpretation is warranted as Jesus never spoke of actual events in parables.

where does it say that answering prayers means mediation?
What else would it be?

Further, I just don't see the need for the practice because the Bible warns against rituals that involve the dead (i.e. Jer 16:6.)

and what actually IS Christ's mediation?

He petitions the Father on our behalf and he atones for our sins on the cross.

...living people can ask angels, God can do all things, but saints cannot be asked anything by living people. that really does not make sense.

Angels speak to people when they are in their presence, as do saints. Yet, praying to and worshiping angels is forbidden. The same should apply to Saints.

Me: Prayer is a form of worship.

You: no it's not. sacrifice and offering is worship...read Shakespeare.

I'm not sure if Shakespeare should be our theological authority, but prayer is part of worship and that's why in the Bible we don't have examples of people petition anyone other than God Himself (and even when addressing angels, the angels are acting as mouthpieces for God and men such as Abraham address the angel as God.)

Me: Oh yeah, the Bible is specific that only Christ intercedes.
You: where does it say that?

Again, 1 Tim 2:5 (" For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus")

I don't risk offending God, again, prayer to someone is not the same as worship of them.
So you're 100% sure and you think there is no chance that you may not be in error?

Me: Where's your evidence that 1400 years of Islam is all a delusion?

You: well, since I am a Christian I know God (one cannot know God in Islam), and none of Mohammed's claims that Jews and Christians actually changed the faith actually holds any sway historically. there is no shred of evidence anywhere that Christians and Jews changed the faith like Muslims say (there is actually the opposite).

All religions make claim to miracles, and until they are empirically verifiable, I don't think they should be used as evidence in an argument.

Me: Because people aren't praying to angels in the Old Testament.

You: talking to them IS praying to them. that is what prayer is.

No, talking to an angel standing right in front of you is no more a prayer than me writing to you right now. This is not a good point of yours.

and again, where does it say only to pray to God in Scripture?

Where does it say you can't pray to Zeus?

and I found the verse with Jeremiah. it's 2 Macc 15:11-16
This is like the appearance of Moses and Elijah. Again, it's not impossible (God is the God of the living), but that does not mean you can address Jeremiah in prayer and that he would listen to it, or prefer you to pray to Him and not to the Lord God Almighty he prayed to himself.
 
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ArmyMatt

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I just don't think that interpretation is warranted as Jesus never spoke of actual events in parables.

what evidence is there that He never used actual events as parables?

What else would it be?

does not answer the question

Further, I just don't see the need for the practice because the Bible warns against rituals that involve the dead (i.e. Jer 16:6.)

Christ Himself says they are not dead, but alive in Him. this is why the departed Moses appeared at the Transfiguration.

He petitions the Father on our behalf and he atones for our sins on the cross.

for one, what evidence do you have that this is what His medation is, and two, how does this conflict with asking a saint for intercessions?

Angels speak to people when they are in their presence, as do saints. Yet, praying to and worshiping angels is forbidden. The same should apply to Saints.

worship yes, but again, where is prayer definined as something one only does to God?

I'm not sure if Shakespeare should be our theological authority, but prayer is part of worship and that's why in the Bible we don't have examples of people petition anyone other than God Himself (and even when addressing angels, the angels are acting as mouthpieces for God and men such as Abraham address the angel as God.)

he is not an authority, just showing that the word prayer means petition, the history of the word use which is different than how we use it today. so if an angel can be addressed as God's mouthpiece, why can't a saint?

Again, 1 Tim 2:5 (" For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus")

this assumes you are reading the line correctly, and that prayer to someone IS identified as worship.

So you're 100% sure and you think there is no chance that you may not be in error?

yep, and I am not in error. prayer to something is not the same as worship of something. unless you can show otherwise, something clear from Scripture and/or history.

All religions make claim to miracles, and until they are empirically verifiable, I don't think they should be used as evidence in an argument.

I wasn't talking about miracles, I was talking about Islam not washing with history. even if I was not a Christian Islam is about as valid as Mormonism.

No, talking to an angel standing right in front of you is no more a prayer than me writing to you right now. This is not a good point of yours.

yes it is, prayer, again, merely means asking a petition.

Where does it say you can't pray to Zeus?

well, seeing as how I am not defending paganism, it is silly to bring Zeus up. St Paul identifies pagan deities with demons. we are not talking about them, we are talking about saints. so again, where does it say pray to God only?

This is like the appearance of Moses and Elijah. Again, it's not impossible (God is the God of the living), but that does not mean you can address Jeremiah in prayer and that he would listen to it, or prefer you to pray to Him and not to the Lord God Almighty he prayed to himself.

where does it actually say that you cannot address him in prayer? and no one said anything about preference, so I don't know why one would bring that up. it's like asking someone who is your friend to pray for you. clearly you would not prefer your friend over God, but you just petitioned (prayed) to your friend.
 
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abacabb3

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what evidence is there that He never used actual events as parables?
You have the burden of proof not me. We have parables like the ten talents, the fig tre, etc. etc. They're not literal events.

does not answer the question

It does. If prayer is not mediation (which it is asking God for or praising Him and giving thanks), then what can it be?


Christ Himself says they are not dead, but alive in Him. this is why the departed Moses appeared at the Transfiguration.
Life after death is not the basis of praying to someone.

for one, what evidence do you have that this is what His medation is, and two, how does this conflict with asking a saint for intercessions?

Are you purposely try to debate every minor point? I am sorry if I am being impatient, but this issue to me is elementary. It is talked about it detail in the Book of Hebrews, I can cite it if you want if you are genuinely interested.

This fact itself does not conflict with interceding saints. The fact that the Saints pray to Christ on our behalf because Christ alone is the mediator undercuts the reason of using a middleman.

worship yes, but again, where is prayer definined as something one only does to God?
I just disproved your point that people addressed angels and that somehow that is the same as praying.

And because prayers goes along with worship, I personally consider them one and of the same.

so if an angel can be addressed as God's mouthpiece, why can't a saint?
Is this a rhetorical question or do you want an answer?

The answer is that God sent angels to mediate between Him and us before the appearance of Christ in the world (Gal 3:19). This set of conditions no longer exists.

this assumes you are reading the line correctly, and that prayer to someone IS identified as worship.
Again, you said "where does it say Christ mediates alone? I just shown you. "Thanks" would be nice.

yep, and I am not in error.

Sure, how can you be?

I wasn't talking about miracles, I was talking about Islam not washing with history. even if I was not a Christian Islam is about as valid as Mormonism.
Having studied history, Christianity doesn't mesh well with the secular discipline either.

so again, where does it say pray to God only?

I think you ask this earnestly and I don't have a good answer fo you, let me give it some careful consideration.
 
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