- Aug 21, 2003
- 29,117
- 6,148
- Country
- United States
- Gender
- Male
- Faith
- Baptist
- Marital Status
- Married
- Politics
- US-Others
So, we're barred from using secular sources. We're barred from using any religious sources if they disagree with orthodoxy... We must support our opinions only using the human opinion of members of your chosen congregation?
How objective.
You are misrepresenting what I said. I did not say anything like that.
Of course he didn't "vote." It wasn't a "voting" situation. The bishops gave their counsel, and he announced what "truth" was after having listened to their counsel... just like a parent listens to his child's suggestion, then makes the same decision he would have made had the child not spoke. However, letting the child (or in this case, "The church") argue before giving his opinion, he gave them the illusion that his opinion was based on their debate.
It's like the ancient proverb: What's the only way to get a woman to do what you want? Make her think it was her idea.
Humorous anecdotes, which may contain a grain of truth, are not evidence.
Please see my post which you replied to, note I referred to six historians who lived concurrent with Nicaea.Since we're talking about "real history" ... where are you getting this "real history" from? You're making a claim that all these sources are wrong, however your source is completely accurate with NO, ZERO, NONE actual references.
Here are the names of several historians who lived concurrent with Nicaea, and wrote about it, Eusebius, Lactantius, Socrates, Sozomen, Theodoret, and Rufinus. None of them support the EB. According to the real history, Constantine spoke only at the opening ceremony and throughout the council his bishop spoke for him. He did not even vote.
The question isn't "why would Christians who have been persecuted by the roman government for so long finally give in?" ... but rather... why are YOU under the impression that the same empire that had been persecuting Christians for SO long finally just said "oh, nvm, we're going to be nice now and just let you have your way?"
I know what happened as related by historians who were alive at the time and who attended the Nicarea council. All accounts which claim that Constantine was a pagan sun worshipper, who forced a pagan Trinity on the council at the point of a bloody spear or sword, etc. have no factual information on which to base those claims. None of the 4th century historical accounts referenced above support any of those claims.
Think about it from a pagan Emporer's perspective.
According to the historians Eusebius and Lactantius who lived at the time of Nicaea, Constantine was a Christian.
According to what? Because every report I've ever read on the Nicene creed was that the major point of debate was the diety of Christ. That because he was the Son of God, and because "kind begets kind" that Jesus must be the same kind as the one who begat him... i.e. his Father was a "God", therefore he must be of the "God"kind as well. This shows a second God-being... there was no talk about him being "equal" or "the same being" until decades later.
You may have read all this in WTBS and other unsupported publications but the genuine histories, referred to above, none of the highlighted statements are factual.
this is dandy. When we give our opinion, you dismiss it because "the JWs have only been around for 100 years! And other congregations have been around for much longer!" ... yet, they give a reference you disagree with, then provide a LATER reference saying it's more updated?
You continue to deliberately misrepresent what I said. I did NOT make either of these statements.
So, which is it? Are newer sources "better because they are updated?" Or, are we to trust older sources because they're older?
If you would read my posts you would not have to ask this question. I have clearly stated what I meant more than once. If there is anything in my posts which you do not understand, quote my post exactly and I will clarify it. Please don't misrepresnet what I have said and accuse me of saying things I did not say.
Either way, it's fallacious... although I'm not sure what the proper term would be for "saying something's right solely on the basis of it being older/newer." What's the term for that?
If I had said anything remotely like this it would be false or fallacious but I didn't. You continue to misrepresent what I did say. If you think I did say something like this please quote the post exactly and I will clarify it for you.
Upvote
0