Is that the point I was making? Clearly not. Why the childish response?
Did I say it was? You brought up Joel 2 and I simply showed how Peter quoted Joel 2:28-32 and related it to events occurring on the day of Pentecost. Do you have some kind of problem with that?
If you want there to be only one day of the Lord then do you acknowledge that it started on the day of Pentecost as Peter indicated in Acts 2:16-21 by quoting Joel 2:28-32 and relating it to the things that were happening that day?
What I'd really like to talk about, instead of arguing over what happens on the day of the Lord or over the duration of the day of the Lord, is what happens on the day Christ returns. If you don't want to see that day as the day of the Lord, fine. Nevermind that then. Are you interested in talking about what will happen on the actual 24 hour day that Christ returns and what scripture teaches about that?
The day that Christ returns is the beginning of the day of the Lord, that is clear in all the "sun and moon darkening" scripture in Amos, Joel, Isaiah, etc. That's the 6th seal.
But what takes place after the 6th seal is events that take time.
It's not shown as an instant nuke in Revelation.
It's shown as events that take time.
There's an appearance in the clouds at the beginning, which has the unrighteous hiding themselves, the wrath of God poured out on them over a period of time, and then a battle on land that Jesus leads, and the unrighteous fight against Him, and then a 1000 year Kingdom, and at the end, there's your instant nuke, and jump to Great White Throne and the 2nd Resurrection.
First they hide from the appearance in the clouds, then when He's on the ground they try to fight.
How you conflate the 2 as being the same instant nuke event, I have no idea.
Because according to you, Revelation should just be Jesus returns the world gets nuked, Amen.
You disregard the 3.5 years
You disregard the 5 month 5th trumpet
You disregard the 1 year, 1 month, 1 day, and 1 hour 6th trumpet
You disregard the 1000 years
All because the word "day" is used
if it had been "the time of the Lord" would you be so hyperliteral about 24 hour day?
Thank the Lord it wasn't referred to as "the hour of the Lord"
What about when John writes 1 John, in 1 John 2:18 in some versions it's translated as
Little children, it is the last hour: and as ye heard that antichrist cometh, even now have there arisen many antichrists; whereby we know that it is the last hour.
John wrote that 1900+ years ago, saying it was the last hour.
Surely you understand that as a figure of speech
yet you cannot see "the day of the Lord" as a figure of speech.