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On Free Will

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TheSeabass

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If someone denies original sin he is a Pelagian heretic. No mainline Christian denominations deny original sin.

What church do you attend that teaches that? Or is that a conclusion that you arrived at on your own?
The bible does not teach original sin.

John said " sin is the transgression of the law " which makes the idea of original sin impossible.
 
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Wordkeeper

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If someone denies original sin he is a Pelagian heretic. No mainline Christian denominations deny original sin.

What church do you attend that teaches that? Or is that a conclusion that you arrived at on your own?

Actually the one of the oldest denominations, the EOC, does not teach the doctrine of Original Sin, which was mistakenly formed because Augustine did not know Greek.

An existing fragment of one of Pelagius letters outlines all he was condemned of. The accusations were certainly heresies but the letter was written to deny that he ever believed or taught such things.

When all the churches together decided that Pelagius was a heretic, swayed by Augustine's faulty logic, the EOC did not join.
 
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TheSeabass

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Mark 10: 20 “Teacher,” he declared, “all these I have kept since I was a boy.” 21 Jesus looked at him and loved him. “One thing you lack,” he said. “Go, sell everything you have and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me.” 22 At this the man’s face fell. He went away sad, because he had great wealth.

Did Jesus lie to this rich young ruler, because if this rich young ruler was “totally depraved”, there would be nothing he could do to be saved?

If the rich young ruler had been regenerated at this time would he not follow the Shepherd (Christ)?

Jesus should have said: “the one thing you lack is regeneration”, to be perfectly honest with the young man, so was Jesus being dishonest with him?
Did Jesus love all totally depraved individuals or just this one?

The order of events must have happened one way or the other:

---If this rich young man were totally depraved, then he never would have understood nor kept ANY of the commandments to begin with (Luke 18:21).

---so he was either able to understand and keep the commandments while UNREGENERATED or if he were REGENERATED earlier in order to keep the commandments, then being ALREADY REGENERATED he would have done as Christ said and follow Christ.

---if he did not do as Christ said and follow Christ because he was UNREGENERATED then how did he understand and keep the commandments while UNREGENERATED before?

====

If total depravity were true, then Pharaoh would have been totally depraved, predisposed to disobey God. Yet Calvinists tell me God directly hardened Pharaoh's heart against his will so Pharaoh would disobey. But why would God have to hardened Pharaoh's heart directly and against his will to cause him to disobey if Pharaoh was ALREADY predisposed to disobey by his totally depraved nature?

If Pharaoh were UNREGENERATED and unable to understand, then why send Moses to him with the command to "let My people go" when Pharaoh could not understand the command, much less obey it? Was Moses' words just gibberish to Pharaoh? If Pharaoh could understand those words of God (which he did in refusing to let them go), then why couldn't he, (everyone else) understand other words and commands that come from God as words of the gospel? If Pharaoh, while "UNREGENERATED", could understand the command to 'let my people go" then no reason why myself and everyone else cannot understand the command to "believe" or "repent"?
 
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PeaceB

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Actually the one of the oldest denominations, the EOC, does not teach the doctrine of Original Sin, which was mistakenly formed because Augustine did not know Greek.

An existing fragment of one of Pelagius letters outlines all he was condemned of. The accusations were certainly heresies but the letter was written to deny that he ever believed or taught such things.

When all the churches together decided that Pelagius was a heretic, swayed by Augustine's faulty logic, the EOC did not join.
Well, this is what Wikipedia has to say on the topic:

Eastern Orthodoxy
The Eastern Orthodox's version of original sin is the view that sin originates with the Devil, "for the devil sinneth from the beginning. (1 John iii. 8)".[66] They acknowledge that the introduction of ancestral sin[67][better source needed] into the human race affected the subsequent environment for humanity (see also traducianism). However, they never accepted Augustine of Hippo's notions of original sin and hereditary guilt.[68][better source needed]

Orthodox Churches accept the teachings of John Cassian, as do Catholic Churches eastern and western,[42] in rejecting the doctrine of total depravity, by teaching that human nature is "fallen", that is, depraved, but not totally. Augustine Casiday states that Cassian "baldly asserts that God's grace, not human free will, is responsible for 'everything which pertains to salvation' – even faith."[43] Cassian points out that people still have moral freedom and one has the option to choose to follow God. Colm Luibhéid says that, according to Cassian, there are cases where the soul makes the first little turn,[44] while Augustine Casiday says that, in Cassian's view, any sparks of goodwill that may exist, not directly caused by God, are totally inadequate and only direct divine intervention ensures spiritual progress.[45] and Lauren Pristas says that "for Cassian, salvation is, from beginning to end, the effect of God's grace."[46]

Eastern Orthodoxy accepts the doctrine of ancestral sin: "Original sin is hereditary. It did not remain only Adam and Eve's. As life passes from them to all of their descendants, so does original sin."[69] "As from an infected source there naturally flows an infected stream, so from a father infected with sin, and consequently mortal, there naturally proceeds a posterity infected like him with sin, and like him mortal."[70]

The Orthodox Church in America makes clear the distinction between "fallen nature" and "fallen man" and this is affirmed in the early teaching of the Church whose role it is to act as the catalyst that leads to true or inner redemption. Every human person born on this earth bears the image of God undistorted within themselves.[71] In the Orthodox Christian understanding, they explicitly deny that humanity inherited guilt from anyone. Rather, they maintain that we inherit our fallen nature. While humanity does bear the consequences of the original, or first, sin, humanity does not bear the personal guilt associated with this sin. Adam and Eve are guilty of their willful action; we bear the consequences, chief of which is death."[72]

The view of the Eastern Orthodox Church varies on whether Mary is free of all actual sin or concupiscence. Some Patristic sources imply that she was cleansed from sin at the Annunciation, while the liturgical references are unanimous that she is all-holy from the time of her conception.[73][74]

Beyond that, I will have to take your word on it.
 
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TheSeabass

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Unless your translation of the Bible doesn't contain John 10, you should know that your statement is untrue.
My bible does contain John 10 and it says nothing about men being totally depraved where man has to first be miraculously acted by God before man can understand.

You did not specify anything in John 10 so I will assume you refer to verse 26 "But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you."
Jesus is not saying one must first be of Him before one is able to believe. Such an idea puts salvation BEFORE belief which cannot be biblically supported.

Earlier in the context, John 8, Jesus is having a discourse with Jews, Pharisees.

Some believed him John 8:30-31. Then Jesus tells them "And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free." to which they took exception with "They answered him, We be Abraham's seed, and were never in bondage to any man: how sayest thou, Ye shall be made free?"

As the discourse goes on the Jews lay claim to being descendants of Abraham as if being Abraham's descendant was all needed to be saved. To which Christ replies " If ye were Abraham's children, ye would do the works of Abraham." If they were Abraham's (spiritual) children then they would do the works of Abraham, ie, have an obedient faith as Abraham in obeying God's will.

Christ says to these Jews "But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham." To which they respond "We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God."

These Pharisees make the claim that they were "of God". So in John 10:26 when Jesus said "But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you." Jesus was proving they were not "believers indeed" (John 8:31) and not of God as they claimed. If these Pharisees were of God as they claimed and knew the OT law as they claimed they did, then they would have known that Jesus was the Messiah promised them and would have believed Him and been of Him. Yet their not being of Christ sheep was the proof-evidence of their unbelief and proof-evidence that they were not of God as they so claimed. As McGarvey puts it "Failure to be Christ's sheep was not the cause, but the evidence of their unbelief." (my emp)
 
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jimmyjimmy

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My bible does contain John 10 and it says nothing about men being totally depraved where man has to first be miraculously acted by God before man can understand.

You did not specify anything in John 10 so I will assume you refer to verse 26 "But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you."
Jesus is not saying one must first be of Him before one is able to believe. Such an idea puts salvation BEFORE belief which cannot be biblically supported.

Earlier in the context, John 8, Jesus is having a discourse with Jews, Pharisees.

Some believed him John 8:30-31. Then Jesus tells them "And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free." to which they took exception with "They answered him, We be Abraham's seed, and were never in bondage to any man: how sayest thou, Ye shall be made free?"

As the discourse goes on the Jews lay claim to being descendants of Abraham as if being Abraham's descendant was all needed to be saved. To which Christ replies " If ye were Abraham's children, ye would do the works of Abraham." If they were Abraham's (spiritual) children then they would do the works of Abraham, ie, have an obedient faith as Abraham in obeying God's will.

Christ says to these Jews "But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham." To which they respond "We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God."

These Pharisees make the claim that they were "of God". So in John 10:26 when Jesus said "But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you." Jesus was proving they were not "believers indeed" (John 8:31) and not of God as they claimed. If these Pharisees were of God as they claimed and knew the OT law as they claimed they did, then they would have known that Jesus was the Messiah promised them and would have believed Him and been of Him. Yet their not being of Christ sheep was the proof-evidence of their unbelief and proof-evidence that they were not of God as they so claimed. As McGarvey puts it "Failure to be Christ's sheep was not the cause, but the evidence of their unbelief." (my emp)

It's a simple sentence: But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep.

It can only be taken one way. The reason they don't believe is that they are not His sheep.
 
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TheSeabass

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What church do you attend that teaches that? Or is that a conclusion that you arrived at on your own?
I am a member of the church of Christ and I reach the same conclusion as the bible...no original sin. All men are born into the world pure and innocent....God " formeth the spirit of man within him" Zech 12:1 and God hath "made man upright" Eccl 7:29 so the soul in man would be as pure and upright as its Maker and thereby David would praise God "for I am fearfully and wonderfully made" Psalms 139:14. David was not praising God for making him an impure, vile, rebellious, lost reprobate sinner.
 
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HeLeadethMe

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As I already pointed out, all the contradictions on this forum alone shows a serious flaw in the idea that people understand by miraculous enlightenment by the Holy Spirit. If posters on this forum have their understanding miraculously 'enlightened" by the HS, then they would be just as infallible as the HS in their understanding. But just look at all the fallible contradictions. Have you, or anyone else on this forum, ever changed a view on a bible topic? If so, then was the HS in error and mislead on the issue earlier? How could one even objectively tell he has been "enlightened"? He couldn't.


The whole idea of this "miraculous enlightenment" is grounded in the idea of totally depravity which the bible does not teach.

Without Him we can do nothing........nothing, nothing, nada. It is not just for understanding the scriptures, though He does Help us with that too.

Jesus sent the Holy Spirit so as to not leave us as orphans. He didn't send the Holy Spirit and then take Him away later thereby making us orphans.......we who have the SPIRIT of adoption. And His spiritual gifts are for the edifying of the church.....when did the church stop needing to be edified. But never mind, I said I would not argue.
 
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PeaceB

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There is no indication anywhere in the bible that before those Ephesians became Christians they were totally depraved and unable to understand without God first acting upon them so they could understand. Eph 3:4 shows they could understand the Ephesian epistle (or any other epistle) without divine miraculous intervention. This passage in Eph 3 shows that the things of God's mind was inspirationally revealed to inspired men as Paul who wrote it down so we can read. So we understand the things of God's mind through reading for no again, no verse says each individual has his own personal "pipeline" with the Holy Spirit. AS I posted in an earlier post, look at al the religious confusion, contradictions and untruth posted by 1000's of individuals just on this forum alone. If all posters here are all getting their "enlightenment" directly from the HS and not the written word, then the HS should be ashamed of Himself for all the confusion, untruths and striving that He is responsible for. I can easily say "you are wrong" for the HS "enlightened" me different from what you are saying".

Therefore Paul is NOT saying in Eph 1:17-18 those Ephesians need miraculous enlightenment from the HS to be able to understand, just be able to read the written word per Eph 3:4. So man's mind is capable of understanding but the mind must have the right attitude in understanding the bible and approach the bible with an open and honest heart. Many (if not most people) approach the bible with preconceptions and have the mindset to change the bible to fit their preconceptions, hence they will never have an understanding of the bible even though they have the ability to read the words. This is one reason why you can find so many contradictions within religion or just on this forum alone. So the "spirit of wisdom and understanding" does not refer to the Holy Spirit Himself but refers to an attitude of thinking, a correct disposition in making appropriate discernments pertaining to God's word. One must have the right type of "soil" (heart) for the seed (the word of God), to grow and flourish, Luke 8:15..." they, which in an honest and good heart, having heard the word, keep it, and bring forth fruit with patience." This "honest and good" heart is the spirit of wisdom and understanding.

Paul said "For God hath not given us the spirit of fear; but of power, and of love, and of a sound mind." 2 Timothy 1:7. Again this spirit of power, love and a sound mind is not the Holy Spirit Himself but a mental, attitudinal disposition. In God giving one a spirit of wisdom and understanding and a spirit of power, love and a sound mind does not mean the individual does nothing while God does everything. The individual has a role in cooperating with God by having the correct disposition, attitude in gaining the proper wisdom, understanding, power, love and sound mind.
I am not sure why you continue to write me concerning Calvinist doctrine, when I have already made it clear to you that I do not hold to Calvinist teaching. I hold original sin but I do not hold total depravity. So I will let you continue the debate concerning total depravity with people who hold that.

Nor is my position that non-believers "miraculous enlightenment from the HS to be able to understand, just be able to read the written word". It appears that you have misunderstood my position.

If you want to know exactly what I hold, you can read these documents:

During the time of Felix IV
Paul III Council of Trent-5
Paul III Council of Trent-6

Now, you believe that there is no "original sin" and that man has free will to choose good or evil. Thus, logically, you must hold that man is capable of meriting his own salvation without applying the merits that Jesus earned by his death on the cross. That is, because a man is not condemned by Adam's original sin, and because a man has free will and the ability to choose good and evil, all he need do is choose good over evil throughout his life, and if he does not sin, he should go to heaven regardless of whether or not he ever hears or accepts the gospel of Jesus Christ. This is the logical conclusion that flows from the views that you hold, and it is what the Pelagians held. Are you OK with that?
 
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TheSeabass

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It's a simple sentence: But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep.

It can only be taken one way. The reason they don't believe is that they are not His sheep.


No, for your way has one saved (of Christ's sheep) BEFORE one even believes which goes against the numerous verses that put belief/faith BEFORE salvation. The next verse says (v27) "My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:" Jesus said MY SHEEP, his is a qualifying statement that to qualify to be of Christ's sheep one must hear and follow. You have one of Christ's sheep BEFORE one hears and follows. John 3:18 unbelief is an "condemned already" state not a "saved already" state as you have it.



Jesus was simply refuting the Pharisees claim they were believers who were of God.
Again McGarvey says "Failure to be Christ's sheep was not the cause, but the evidence of their unbelief"

Their not being of Christ's sheep was proof they were not believers-not of God has they claimed and not the cause of their unbelief.
 
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PeaceB

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I am a member of the church of Christ
Thank you. But could you please be a little more specific?


Church of Christ may refer to:
Are you referring to any of the churches listed above, or is safe for us to assume that you have set up the Seabass Church of Christ in your own backyard?
 
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jimmyjimmy

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No, for your way has one saved (of Christ's sheep) BEFORE one even believes which goes against the numerous verses that put belief/faith BEFORE salvation. The next verse says (v27) "My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:" Jesus said MY SHEEP, his is a qualifying statement that to qualify to be of Christ's sheep one must hear and follow. You have one of Christ's sheep BEFORE one hears and follows. John 3:18 unbelief is an "condemned already" state not a "saved already" state as you have it.



Jesus was simply refuting the Pharisees claim they were believers who were of God.
Again McGarvey says "Failure to be Christ's sheep was not the cause, but the evidence of their unbelief"

Their not being of Christ's sheep was proof they were not believers-not of God has they claimed and not the cause of their unbelief.

God has already determined who He would give to Christ. These are His sheep. They respond to His voice BECAUSE they are His sheep. The verse couldn't be more clear, just as the Book of Life has already been written and sealed.
 
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TheSeabass

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Without Him we can do nothing........nothing, nothing, nada. It is not just for understanding the scriptures, though He does Help us with that too.

Jesus sent the Holy Spirit so as to not leave us as orphans. He didn't send the Holy Spirit and then take Him away later thereby making us orphans.......we who have the SPIRIT of adoption. And His spiritual gifts are for the edifying of the church.....when did the church stop needing to be edified. But never mind, I said I would not argue.

John 15:5

Jesus' point in this verse is that you can do nothing of yourself, you cannot make yourself by yourself righteous before God. You need to Christ to be seen as righteous before God, you have to be of the Vine.

Jesus was perfectly sinless, therefore He is perfectly righteous. So man must be "in Christ" and be covered by His perfect righteousness to be seen as righteous by God. It is by water baptism that one is baptized into Christ and puts on Christ (Gal 3:27) putting on Christ's perfect righteousness so a man can be found complete/perfect "IN CHRIST" Col 1:28. Therefore you cannot procure your own salvation by yourself apart from Christ, apart from the Vine.

Even though man cannot procure his own salvation by himself does not mean that man does not have a role in his own salvation. Those in Acts 2 were lost spiritually dead, yet while in this state they were willing able to understand what was preached by Peter, be pricked in their hearts and asked what to do and obeyed what they were commanded.

So when it says "ye can do nothing", those lost in Acts 2 did so something in being saved ("save yourselves" v40) but what they could not do was to save themselves by themselves apart fromthe Vine.
 
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Jennifer Rothnie

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Every time (and I mean every time) any discusion where Reformed theology is brought up, some sort of "but man has free will" argument arises, as if the secular humanistic view of free will is some sort of counter argument.

So my question is this. Can the natural man do anything that's spiritually good? Or to ask another way, can the natural man do anything to glorify God?

Scripture mentions many 'natural men' (that is, without faith in Christ who have not received the Holy Spirit) doing certain things that were spiritually good or glorified God:

Egyptian midwives: "The midwives, however, feared God and did not do what the king of Egypt had told them to do; they let the boys live....The midwives answered Pharaoh, “Hebrew women are not like Egyptian women; they are vigorous and give birth before the midwives arrive.” So God was kind to the midwives and the people increased and became even more numerous. And because the midwives feared God, he gave them families of their own." Ex 1:15-21

Ahab's (temporary) humility: "Have you noticed how Ahab has humbled himself before me? Because he has humbled himself, I will not bring this disaster in his day, but I will bring it on his house in the days of his son." I Kings 21:49

Cornelius: "At Caesarea there was a man named Cornelius, a centurion in what was known as the Italian Regiment. He and all his family were devout and God-fearing; he gave generously to those in need and prayed to God regularly...The angel answered, “Your prayers and gifts to the poor have come up as a memorial offering before God." Acts 10:1-4

Good Samaritan: But a Samaritan, as he traveled, came where the man was; and when he saw him, he had compassion on him. He went to him and bandaged his wounds, pouring on oil and wine. Then he put the man on his own donkey, brought him to an inn and took care of him. The next day he took out two denarii and gave them to the innkeeper. ‘Look after him,’ he said, ‘and when I return, I will reimburse you for any extra expense you may have.’ “Which of these three do you think was a neighbor to the man who fell into the hands of robbers?” The expert in the law replied, “The one who had mercy on him.” Jesus told him, “Go and do likewise.”" Lk 10:33-37

Nebuchadnezzar glorifying God: "King Nebuchadnezzar, To the nations and peoples of every language, who live in all the earth: May you prosper greatly! It is my pleasure to tell you about the miraculous signs and wonders that the Most High God has performed for me. How great are his signs, how mighty his wonders! His kingdom is an eternal kingdom; his dominion endures from generation to generation." Dan 4:1-3
And
"At the end of that time, I, Nebuchadnezzar, raised my eyes toward heaven, and my sanity was restored. Then I praised the Most High; I honored and glorified him who lives forever. His dominion is an eternal dominion; his kingdom endures from generation to generation....Now I, Nebuchadnezzar, praise and exalt and glorify the King of heaven, because everything he does is right and all his ways are just. And those who walk in pride he is able to humble." Dan 4:34-37

Sailors: At this the men greatly feared the Lord, and they offered a sacrifice to the Lord and made vows to him. Joan 1:16

There are many other specific examples in scripture, and some general comments as well about the general ability of man to obey, seek God, and do right. [None of this contradicts the fact that no human can -perfectly- obey, seek God, and do right, and that all have fallen short of the glory of God.]

Mankind seeking God: Paul said, "From one man He made every nation of men, to inhabit the whole earth; and He determined their appointed times and the boundaries of their lands. His purpose (will) was for the nations to seek after God and perhaps feel their way toward him and find him--though he is not far from any one of us." (Acts 17:26-27)

General ability to do what is right: "And you, son of man, say to your fellow citizens, 'The righteousness of a righteous man will not deliver him in the day of his transgression, and as for the wickedness of the wicked, he will not stumble because of it in the day when he turns from his wickedness; whereas a righteous man will not be able to live by his righteousness on the day when he commits sin.' If I tell a righteous person that they will surely live, but then they trust in their righteousness and do evil, none of the righteous things that person has done will be remembered; they will die for the evil they have done." Ezek 33:12-13

General ability to do what is right: "For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God’s sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous. (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law. They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times even defending them.) This will take place on the day when God judges people’s secrets through Jesus Christ, as my gospel declares." Rom 2:13-16

General ability to give good gifts: "If you then, who are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father who is in heaven give good gifts to those who ask him!” Matt 7:9-11

Etc.
 
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TheSeabass

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I am not sure why you continue to write me concerning Calvinist doctrine, when I have already made it clear to you that I do not hold to Calvinist teaching. I hold original sin but I do not hold total depravity. So I will let you continue the debate concerning total depravity with people who hold that.

Nor is my position that non-believers "miraculous enlightenment from the HS to be able to understand, just be able to read the written word". It appears that you have misunderstood my position.

If you want to know exactly what I hold, you can read these documents:

During the time of Felix IV
Paul III Council of Trent-5
Paul III Council of Trent-6

Now, you believe that there is no "original sin" and that man has free will to choose good or evil. Thus, logically, you must hold that man is capable of meriting his own salvation without applying the merits that Jesus earned by his death on the cross. That is, because a man is not condemned by Adam's original sin, and because a man has free will and the ability to choose good and evil, all he need do is choose good over evil throughout his life, and if he does not sin, he should go to heaven regardless of whether or not he ever hears or accepts the gospel of Jesus Christ. This is the logical conclusion that flows from the views that you hold, and it is what the Pelagians held. Are you OK with that?

Original sin is usually accredited to Augustine (not to Christ or His apostles) and made more popular by men as Calvin and Luther.

" Augustiine's formulation of original sin was popular among Protestant reformers, such as Martin Luther and John Calvin,..."
Original sin - Wikipedia


Again, John's statement that sin is transgression of the law makes the idea of original sin impossible.

Yes, man has free will to choose between good and evil but that does not in any way imply man merits his salvation. Salvation is a free gift that cannot be merited. God's gift of salvation is CONDITIONAL and not UNconditional. Since the gift of salvation is CONDITIONAL man must use his free will to choose to meet those conditions God has placed upon His free gift to receive that gift and working to meet the conditions do not, cannot merit the free gift. Man can also choose NOT to meet the conditions and therefore will NOT receive the free gift.
 
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Hammster

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The context says nothing about total depravity at all. Therefore that idea is being assumed into the text.

If you can assume total depravity in the context of Acts 2, then what stops anyone from assuming anything into any text?

Acts 2:37 when Peter finishes speaking it says "Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?"

The Greek word for "heard" is akouo meaning a hearing with a view to learning, to perceive, to understand. So where does it say they could have only 'heard' if first acted upon by God?

Again, John 6:45 God draws by His word when men are "taught" "heard" and "learned". God's drawing would be useless, senseless if no one could possible understand.
I never assumed total depravity from this text. You made a comment about the text, I asked you to defend the comment, and instead of doing that, you started in on what you think I believe about the text, and still haven't answered the challenge.

It's a giant deflection.
 
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Hammster

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The bible does not teach original sin.

John said " sin is the transgression of the law " which makes the idea of original sin impossible.
Adam transgressed the law.
 
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JamesFW

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I have not seen the term "saving faith" in the bible, but Paul did say in Colossians as you have received Christ Jesus (which starts out with a measure, though faith the size of a mustard seed is more than proficient) and even a little faith must work by love (unless that statement to begin with is not accurate) so walk ye in him, which is simply by faith, Paul professing that you can't come to God unless you first believe that he is (which connects with the measure), and we know we cannot come to him unless he first draws us (really, how can you come to something you cannot physically see outside of faith).

I believe Paul said this -

14 How then shall they call on Him in whom they have not believed? And how shall they believe in Him of whom they have not heard? And how shall they hear without a preacher?
15 And how shall they preach unless they are sent? (Romans 10)


He said nothing of regeneration, nor election, nor predestination, nor being drawn, nor spiritually seeing.
 
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TheSeabass

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Thank you. But could you please be a little more specific?


Church of Christ may refer to:
Are you referring to any of the churches listed above, or is safe for us to assume that you have set up the Seabass Church of Christ in your own backyard?

I do not know of any "official" church of Christ website(s). The church of Christ has no official representatives, so I speak-post of myself not representing any other church of Christ member and no other member represents me. Each congregation is autonomous and one congregation has no business in the affairs of a sister congregation.

What Is the Church of Christ?

The above link gives an accurate depiction.
 
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