Ugh, my browser crashed just as I had finished writing a response. Let's see how much I remember...
Critias said:
I disagree. I believe it is possible to read something and look for the author's intended meaning without changing the meaning of his/her words and the context of that which it is in.
Then we have to agree to disagree. For example, the usage of dust. The actual meaning of the word *is* dust, but I do not believe that was the author's intended meaning, but rather that we were made of small particles, which we now know are molecules, atoms, or their even smaller constituents, etc.
I assume you don't have a Hebrew font installed on your computer. What I wrote was in Hebrew and "muwth" is the transliteration of the word.
Nope, that's probably why.
I would say that the author didn't know that there was going to be a Bible, let alone 61 other books written by another 40 or so authors, within a span of 1600 or so years.
More than 61 books, if you know what I mean.

(Feel free to ignore this, as it's not really relevant to te discussion)
Because the author was limited in knowledge of what the future held, he wrote with the inspired intent to tell of what he did know, by divine inspiration from the Almighty God.
Ok, no disagreements there.
I don't see it as trampling over yec's understanding of their hermeneutical approach. I see it as correcting the name of their approach. I think often people don't take the time to think out completely what some words implications are. Literalists means one who takes everything literally. To say yec's are literalists is a fallacy because many have stated here that they don't take Psalms to be literal in every verse and chapter therein.
So, literalists is an incorrect word to use to describe them. Most yec's that I have come across don't call themselves literalists, but are rather called literalists by those who object to their interpretation. It is simply an over exaggerated remark meant to make yec's look stupid. It is also used to trap yec's into a complete literal interpretation of everything, otherwise they will be called inconsistent with their hermeneutical approach.
It is simply a dishonest tactic and that is how I see it.
Then why do YECs call us "non-literalists," as if to imply that they were not non-literalists, i.e. literalists? If your point is that, there are no real literalists at all, then why is it everytime we don't take a passage literally we get jumped on and told that if we don't take X passage literally, then how can we take Y passage (which often deals with things such as Christ's Resurrection) literally, usually with the added implications that we aren't "real" Christians?
You have to recognize that there is an other side to this fence, before making it sound like YECs are the underdogs here. They are just as responsible for this label being in use.
If we are still on the same subject: Genesis 2:17, then I believe the author's intended meaning is not spiritual death but physical death. I believe the author already knew and understood that it is sin that separates man from God and that because of their sin, one of their consequences was not being able to eat of the Tree of Life, which would result in physical death.
The phrase "in the day" is a figurative phrase used in the OT several times, and in Genesis 2:17 it is meant to refer to "in the day of disobedience." The passage starts off with saying what not to do, then says if you do do it, which is disobedience, then you will die in the day of your sin(disobeying God).
It cannot refer to spiritual death, in the verse, because of the definition of the word muwth is physical death not spiritual death. It does not even give the slightest of hints that it is to be taken as spiritual death. In fact Genesis 3:19, confirms this is physical death by God announcing that Adam will return to the dust from that which he was made.
Ok, so even if the definition of the word "muwth" does mean physical death (which does not seem to be the case, rather, it's a root word that just means
"to die"), it also seems that the word can be
taken figuratively, and if so, it's not a stretch at all to take it to mean spiritual death.
As for 3:19, the "dust to dust" thing may also have been written for poetic reasons. Furthermore, I do not have compelling reasons why the passage should not be taken figuratively.
Satan, in Genesis 3:4 uses this phrase against Eve telling her that surely she wouldn't die from eating the fruit off the Tree of Knowledge. She wouldn't die from eating the fruit, nor did she die on the day she ate the fruit, but in the day of her sin, she became subject to physical death because God kicked them out of the Garden.
Or, it can be interpreted to say that God's original warning was indeed correct, and the act of eating the apple caused her to die spiritually.
Which word for death is used here in Genesis 3:4?
Sin = separation from God = spiritual death
Muwth = physical death
Both happened at the fall.
Christ's death on the Cross = forgiveness from sin = spiritual life
Christ's resurrection = physical life for eternity
One of those we receive when we believe in Jesus Christ and follow Him.
The other we receive upon Christ's return.
Both are redemption of what happened at the fall.
If I'm understanding you correctly, "Christ's resurrection = physical life for eternity" is "the other" that you say "we receive upon Christ's return." But do correct me if I'm wrong.
If that's correct, then sorry, as a Catholic, I'm going to have to disagree with you on that. Yes, our bodies will be resurrected. Yes, it will be the same body. However, it will have been turned into a
spiritual body.
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Ok, after all that, I need to know more of where you stand on the "physical death" before the Fall. Is it
a) No physical death *at all* before the Fall?
b) No physical death *for humans only* before the Fall?
c) Adam and Eve did not have hair, fingernails, outer skin layer, did not eat, etc. Those things evolved after the Fall.
d) Something else?
If you pick a), then I await your explanation of where all the dead matter necessary for their hair, fingernails, skin, digested food, etc. came from. Basically, I see an inconsistency between believing in the passages talking about "physical death" vs. reality, so I am curious as to how you resolve this tension.