Speedwell
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- May 11, 2016
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I sense some confusion between a real event which may have formed the basis for the Noah story and the story itself. The story makes perfect sense if the event which gave rise to it was generally known to have covered all the land within the ken of the audience and killed virtually everyone who lived there. If the Hebrew description of the flood is examined it really doesn't say any more than that. What God is reported to have said about it is part of the story, not part of the event itself.Why not?
As I said before:
And the Lord said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them.
...
and Noah only remained alive, and they that were with him in the ark.
It seems to me the story of the flood only makes sense if all humans (apart from the ark's inhabitants) died.
Was the Lord only angry with the wickedness of people who lived in the land the author(s) of the story knew about?
Did the Lord kill 'large numbers' of people, or everyone apart from Noah's family?
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