Because the same word is translated "giants" in the OT by many translations when speaking of events after the flood.
I do agree with you I had posted verses earlier showing as much
They are large as compared "to us".
Again I agree it states so much
Notice that when Israel first goes into Canaan they immediately complain about "giants". But when Abraham goes there - not one single complaint from him about there being giants in Canaan.
Yeah, there was only three children of Anak there, Ahiman, Sheshai, and Talmai (Numbers 13:22) and their complaints about the giants being there was considered an evil report (Numbers 13:32) Then read the following chapter it pretty much centered around their grumbling about them and the LORD saying, "I will smite them with the pestilence, and disinherit them"
Why compare them with Abraham not complaining about them? I get what you are saying, but a lack of complaining about them is hardly evidence against Abraham.
Indeed because "In those days" refers to "The days before the flood"
Yes, I posted that, but follow all those years from Adam to the last named Lamech the father of Noah who was born and later as a man built an ark and it was during those days (agreed) before the flood which is how many hundred of years after Adam lived?
Briefly, the days of Adam
after he had begotten Seth were eight hundred years but lived nine hundred and thirty years: and he died. Then follow all the begats, after doing that theres no way it was in the days of Adam the years are too many between
Correct me if I am wrong since math isnt my thing
The text simply points out that the Nephilim that were already there - in those days before the flood --
I agree I posted so much, the days of Noah before the flood they are present
continued to be there even after the mixed marriages of Gen 6.
So Adam and Eve qualify as living "in those days" that is those days "before the flood"
But how can it if in Genesis 6:1 after all the days are declared of who begat who begat who begat who and all the many years between them, all the way down to Noah it says,
Genesis 6:1
And it came to pass,
when men began to multiply on the face of the earth,
and daughters were born unto
them,
And ofcourse Adam's line through Seth is the lineage of Christ as a son of God even as Adam is called the Son of God (Luke 3:38)
And so if we were looking at it as the above (Sons of God line) taking some of the daughters of men (Cain's offspring) as might be pictured here
Genesis 6:2 That
the sons of God saw
the daughters of men that they
were fair;
and they took them wives of all which they chose.
That was long past the time of Adam because where daughters are named as being born in/through Adam/Seth's line there are no daughters I can find named in the Adam's/Cain line. Also, since it says "
and it came to pass WHEN men began to multiple and daughters (of which the sons of God would take of) were born of these men. Wouldnt it have to be speaking of Cain's offspring in this situation if the one (the sons of God line) is taking from the other (so to speak)?
Seth's line at least states between daughters and sons being born through that line but Cain's is only stating sons (unless theres some feminine name in there I am missing). I don't know why it does that, but he would have to have them through his sons at some point for the sons of God to actually take of them (And thats if we are looking at it as it being between these two lines, rather than angels descending and hooking up) well, you know what I mean
They have to be the daughters of men right which have to differ from the sons of God. And where I see so many daughters and sons come through Seth why dont I see Cain's line of daughters? When were daughters born to his line?
I gotta look into this more
Edit typos
