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Originally Posted by elman
Yes I am a completely different thing than I was moments ago. I have more experinces than moments ago and different thoughts now. It is like the greek philosopher said about not being able to step into the same river twice.
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I would agree I am not limited to my mental state. I am also my memories and my desires and my fears and my thoughts.
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OK so you have a point with objects who have no choice. Why does that relate to people with brains who do have choices?
I'll address this with the computer example later.
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As I said I am different at different points in time.
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I don't think this is correct. I have argued against both your conclusion and your premises.
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If I am my mental state then I have no problem with my decisions being controlled by my mental state- me.
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No just a denial of your agency theory.
You are using "agency" to imply an agent - a person. I was talking in terms of causation, where anything can be an agent - a billiard ball, for example.
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By me being my mental state.
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Neither is memories.
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Nothing.
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Refusing to accept my argument on your part is not a failure to justify myself on my part.
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You keep mistaking my decisions for being random.
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They are not, I cause them. I think your are working on the assumption my prior mental state is the complete cause of my present mental state
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and I think you are assuming my mental state cannot be one in which I make choice.
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I don't need but the one mental state in which to make a choice. You are just saying the same thing over and over and basically you are just saying I have no ability to make a choice but not providing any evidence this is correct.
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No they are not similar in the question of free will. I have free will. I computer does not. It is more like the ball only more complicated.
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Now you are getting back to the cause of the computer's action, a human with a brain.
If we were created by a God who gave us no free will your analogy would be correct.
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I am glad you brought up the computer. Yes the computer decisions related back to the human that created the compute. My decisions however do not relate back to my creator because my creator made me able to make my own decisions, not like the computers we make that are not free to make their own original decisions but are controlled completely by their programing.
Originally Posted by elman
Yes I am a completely different thing than I was moments ago. I have more experinces than moments ago and different thoughts now. It is like the greek philosopher said about not being able to step into the same river twice.
I existed moments ago. Why did you not exist moments ago?Then when you say "I" you mean something completely different to what everyone else means. We all think of ourselves has having some element of continuity. You betray this in yourself, in fact, by saying "I have more experiences than moments ago" you can't have more experiences than moments ago because moments ago you did not exist - that is, if you are your mental state.
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I would agree I am not limited to my mental state. I am also my memories and my desires and my fears and my thoughts.
Then why use the term mental state? Just say me. I am my mental state so just leave it at I.How many times have I told you that those are part of your mental state? 3 times just in the post to which you are replying, and there are at least 5 other times! Are you even reading what I'm saying?
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OK so you have a point with objects who have no choice. Why does that relate to people with brains who do have choices?
I'll address this with the computer example later.
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As I said I am different at different points in time.
I don't follow. Why did I not exist yesterday?There are two possible meanings of that sentence the first one, which I agree with, is that the properties of you change over time, but there is still a continuous you underlying all of that. A piece of wax which melts is still the same piece of wax even though you can say "the wax is different."
The second meaning, the one that you must mean if "you" is identical with "your mental state" is that the referent of the word "I" changes at different points of time. This would mean you can't say, "I know more than I did yesterday" because the referent of the word I - the currently existing mental state - didn't exist yesterday.
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I don't think this is correct. I have argued against both your conclusion and your premises.
Did you give me the reasoning?Which premise in particular? (Note that the "three options" is not so much a premise as a lemma, sense it took reasoning to get there. You would have to attack the reasoning.)
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If I am my mental state then I have no problem with my decisions being controlled by my mental state- me.
But I thought you were insisting it was me.There should be no problem anyway - you could still possibly have incompatibilistic free will if your mental state was not you but controlled your decision.
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No just a denial of your agency theory.
You are using "agency" to imply an agent - a person. I was talking in terms of causation, where anything can be an agent - a billiard ball, for example.
If I am the same as my mental state then something other than my mental state did not cause the decision, because I caused my decision, otherwise the decision was not a decision and does not exist and neither does any other decision in history."If something other than your mental state (your thoughts, emotions, reasoning, sense experience, memories and so on) causes your decision, how can it be you who made the decision?"
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By me being my mental state.
Using your difintion of mental state as being me than nothing other than my mental state caused the decision.If you are your mental state, and something other than your mental state causes the decision, then you certainly didn't make the decision. It's easy to see: Let Y = you and M = your mental state
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Neither is memories.
Why is that true if my mental state and me are the same?How on earth is that relevant? You seemed to be arguing that if you were angry and didn't act on it, something outside your mental state must be restraining you.
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Nothing.
If I and my mental state are the same thing yes.Now we're getting somewhere.
This is equivalent to option (2) of the trichotomy. Before we go further, do you see this, do you agree with this? If nothing controls the mental state, then that is the same as saying the mental state had no cause? (Or more accurately, that the mental state had no cause which determined its contents)
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Refusing to accept my argument on your part is not a failure to justify myself on my part.
Premise: Do I have different options from which I can chose? Answer: Yes Conclusion: I have free will.What argument? Perhaps you should state yourself in terms of premises and conclusions.
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You keep mistaking my decisions for being random.
It may be random to you. It is not random to me because I caused it to happen.I'm not making a mistake, I'm making a logical argument to that conclusion - if you deny that your decision was determined by something other than you, the argument (which I'm not going to repeat) is that it must be random. Just because you feel like it's not random does not mean it isn't!
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They are not, I cause them. I think your are working on the assumption my prior mental state is the complete cause of my present mental state
Two of the many.No, your prior mental state partially causes your present mental state. External factors also cause your present mental state, in the form of sense experience. Do you agree that these are the two causes of your present mental state?
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and I think you are assuming my mental state cannot be one in which I make choice.
I did not agree these were the only factors in determining my mental state.No, that's wrong. My argument is that your mental state is determined by your previous mental state and external factors, but that you don't have infinite previous mental states, so your present mental state must be wholly determined by external factors.
No not right. My present mental state-i.e. me is what decides.How are we so far? But your present mental state is what causes your decision (right?)
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I don't need but the one mental state in which to make a choice. You are just saying the same thing over and over and basically you are just saying I have no ability to make a choice but not providing any evidence this is correct.
I certainly don't see a valid argument anywhere in any of this.No, I'm not presenting evidence, I'm presenting an argument. It's as if you don't even understand there's an argument there.
I have evidence. My observations and experience.There is no evidence in this debate - if there were evidence, it would be science, not philosophy.
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No they are not similar in the question of free will. I have free will. I computer does not. It is more like the ball only more complicated.
The computer does not cause itself to do what it does. The programing is the cause and the programing is caused by a human.But I'm not discussing free will not in the computer example - I'm discussing causation. So you have to tell me what exactly is different - in terms of causation - between the computer and me which prevents the analogy from working.
Human causes the computer to do what it does.Note you can't just claim "I have free will, the computer doesn't" because firstly, that's begging the question and secondly, because the analogy is purely about causation not free will. You have to find a difference between a human and a computer in terms of causes.
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Now you are getting back to the cause of the computer's action, a human with a brain.
If we were created by a God who gave us no free will your analogy would be correct.
I pick up the pencil because I have the ability to chose to do so. The computer does it because a human had the ability to program the computer as he did.The analogy is correct - because the analogy is determining what causes me or the computer to pick up the pencil, not about whether I or the computer was free to do it.
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I am glad you brought up the computer. Yes the computer decisions related back to the human that created the compute. My decisions however do not relate back to my creator because my creator made me able to make my own decisions, not like the computers we make that are not free to make their own original decisions but are controlled completely by their programing.
I have been talking about causation also. humans cause computer programing.Please read the example through again completely, tell me the difference between humans and computers in terms of causation, and we can talk. I'm not discussing free will yet, I'm discussing causation.
No it was caused by the human who progamed it.The computer's action was caused by it's CPU state.
True but since you and your mental state are the same think you caused you action.My action was caused by my mental state.
Humans were the input from outside and my mental state, i.e. me is not caused exclusivly by who I was yesterday and outside forces.The CPU's state was caused by a previous CPU state, and some input from outside. My mental state was caused by my previous mental state and some input from outside. Where's the difference?
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