Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.
Or maybe it isn't.Or maybe the word of God is for all the sons of God 2 Tim 3:16-17. . .
Seems there are gaping holes in Biblical knowledge and understanding here which are screaming for some serious Bible study.Or maybe it isn't.
Jewish hygiene laws are in the word of God.
Not sure what "not mentioned in the word of God" has to do with me.Personal and pastoral advice to 1st century churches is in the word of God.
Or are you Amish - not using cars, computers, phones, credit cards, microwaves and other mod cons because they are
not mentioned in the word of God?
If you are truly interested in Biblical understanding, please do me the kindness of repeating those questions.I notice you haven't addressed the questions I asked.
Or some gaping holes in reading ability.Seems there are gaping holes in Biblical knowledge and understanding here which are screaming for some serious Bible study.
The book of Leviticus containing Jewish hygiene laws; is it or is it not in the word of God?Or maybe the word of God is for all the sons of God 2 Tim 3:16-17. . .
No. My thinking was that if you follow all things that are written in the word of God, logic suggests that if it's not written, you don't follow/observe/apply it.Not sure what "not mentioned in the word of God" has to do with me.
Do you have me confused with someone else?
They're in post #540, it's not that far back - but ok.If you are truly interested in Biblical understanding, please do me the kindness of repeating those questions.
For example, one of the verses you quoted appears to suggest that Paul had a problem with women speaking in church.
If by that he meant that women should learn in silence and not interrupt, fair enough; that goes for men too.
If you interpret that to mean that no woman should speak in a service - as some do - then you have to explain why Paul taught that women may pray and prophesy. Or why Paul had several, valued female co-workers. Or why he trusted Phoebe to take, and read, his letter to the church at Rome. Or why he called Junias "outstanding among the apostles." If women can't teach, why did Paul not say that the gifts of the Spirit, which include Pastors and teachers, should only be men?
Either it was "Apostolic teaching" that women can't speak/teach in church, or it is Apostolic teaching that the gifts of the Spirit - teaching, evangelism, prophecy are available to all and that God can raise up whoever he wants to serve him in whatever way he chooses - just as he raised Deborah up to be judge over all Israel.
I'm sure that when Paul wrote to people to say they should treat their slaves well, those words were sincere; even inspired by God.
We don't have slaves today - and I think the church played a part in getting slavery abolished. So how do we apply that "apostolic teaching", not to mention all the other examples I have given, today?
And are you really saying that if there was a young widow who had lost her husband in war and who came to your church for help, you would all turn her away because Paul says that widows under 60 deserve no help and are gossiping busybodies?
Twice Paul said my Gospel in Rom2v16 and 16v25.
This is our Gospel, of Grace by Faith, that we have had for the last 2000yrs. No one has been saved by the 1st Gospel of the Kingdom, found in Matt, Mark, Luke and John, since all those years ago.
This was because it was for the Jews only, as a Gospel of works, where by they have to endure to the end to be saved.
We don’t have works, just Grace by Faith, which is the free gift of God.
Unfortunately all denominations and non denominations are man made, dating back to Emperor Constantine, who to appease the Goths, Huns and Vandals, who were attacking Rome, allowed their paganism into the Church, and all subsequent churches and religions. They all mix the 2 Gospels together, making them void.
Church is ekklesia in the Greek, meaning called out ones, so for most going along with your particular brand of Christianity, along with adherence to all the rules, and rituals, think again!
His Grace is sufficient, nothing added. Eph2v8, God’s free gift to us.
The whole bible was written for us, but only Paul’s 13 Epistles were written to us!
Twice Paul said my Gospel in Rom2v16 and 16v25.
This is our Gospel, of Grace by Faith, that we have had for the last 2000yrs. No one has been saved by the 1st Gospel of the Kingdom, found in Matt, Mark, Luke and John, since all those years ago.
This was because it was for the Jews only, as a Gospel of works, where by they have to endure to the end to be saved.
We don’t have works, just Grace by Faith, which is the free gift of God.
Unfortunately all denominations and non denominations are man made, dating back to Emperor Constantine, who to appease the Goths, Huns and Vandals, who were attacking Rome, allowed their paganism into the Church, and all subsequent churches and religions. They all mix the 2 Gospels together, making them void.
Church is ekklesia in the Greek, meaning called out ones, so for most going along with your particular brand of Christianity, along with adherence to all the rules, and rituals, think again!
His Grace is sufficient, nothing added. Eph2v8, God’s free gift to us.
The whole bible was written for us, but only Paul’s 13 Epistles were written to us!
Their meaning is most definitely for the sons of God.Or some gaping holes in reading ability.
You said:
The book of Leviticus containing Jewish hygiene laws; is it or is it not in the word of God?
So taking your own words "maybe the word of God is for all the sons of God", are the Jewish food and hygiene laws for the sons of God, or not?
Once again, it seems the apostle Paul, who received his teaching from Jesus personally (Gal 1:11-12) is in disagreement with you (2 Tim 3:16). . ."All Scripture is God-breathed and useful. . ."I know perfectly well that they're in the old covenant, which Hebrews says is obsolete - and I know perfectly well that Jesus said he had come to fulfil the law.
I was just responding to your own words.
My whole point is that not all of the Bible is for us
That is not a divine inference from human logic, that is a human assumption from ignorance of Scripture.- there are verses/passages/books in there that we do not follow at all. They were left in there by those who put the Bible together because all Scripture is useful for teaching, correction etc.
We can learn from Jewish hygiene laws. We don't follow them - yet they are still in the word of God.
No. My thinking was that if you follow all things that are written in the word of God,
logic suggests that if it's not written, you don't follow/observe/apply it.
I'll give them a look. . .They're in post #540, it's not that far back - but ok.
Is the issue gold, braids, and expensive clothes, or is the issue ostentatiousness vs. modesty, decency and propriety?For the people he was writing to, maybe; not for us.
Some of Paul's churches were writing to him with specific questions, or there were things going on in that church that Paul needed to address.
It is not Apostolic teaching, for example, that women shouldn't wear gold. And it's certainly not upheld today - or women wouldn't have gold wedding rings in church. It is not Apostolic teaching that women cannot braid their hair, or have to cover their heads.
Because the others were not apostles to the Gentiles, only Paul was.Then of what relevance is it that none of the other apostles wrote to the Gentile churches presenting the regulations Paul presented to them?
Do we know that the problems in Gentile churches likewise existed in the Jewish Christian churches?DId I say that?
Of course they're not. But if there were a specific doctrine, especially one of importance, you'd expect all the Apostles to teach it to all their churches. And not just have it "taught" by one person in a personal letter - which was one of the last that he ever wrote
You're going to have to decide if the culture determines your theology, or if the NT Scriptures determine your theology.Teaching, yes.
Personal greetings, advice or answering specific problems in certain churches, no.
For example, one of the verses you quoted appears to suggest that Paul had a problem with women speaking in church.
If by that he meant that women should learn in silence and not interrupt, fair enough; that goes for men too.
If you interpret that to mean that no woman should speak in a service - as some do - then you have to explain why Paul taught that women may pray and prophesy.
Strawman. . .Or why Paul had several, valued female co-workers. Or why he trusted Phoebe to take, and read, his letter to the church at Rome. Or why he called Junias "outstanding among the apostles." If women can't teach, why did Paul not say that the gifts of the Spirit, which include Pastors and teachers, should only be men?
The instructions from Paul are from God, who is telling us exactly what he chooses.Either it was "Apostolic teaching" that women can't speak/teach in church, or it is Apostolic teaching that the gifts of the Spirit - teaching, evangelism, prophecy are available to all and that God can raise up whoever he wants to serve him in whatever way he chooses -
Indeed, in dire straights there can be exceptions to the rule, as in David's men eating the showbread from the Holy Place, which eating was forbidden.just as he raised Deborah up to be judge over all Israel.
Precisely. . .Paul received his doctrine from the third heaven (throne of God), and no one on earth has the authority to alter it, including the doctrine on the role of women in the assembly, that theu must not be Pastors.No, Paul says "a man", 2 Corinthians 12:2-4 - largely thought to be referring to himself.
Those words weren't just "sincere," they were authoritative to the church.I'm sure that when Paul wrote to people to say they should treat their slaves well, those words were sincere; even inspired by God.
We apply all apostolic teaching only to the situations to which they apply.We don't have slaves today - and I think the church played a part in getting slavery abolished. So how do we apply that "apostolic teaching", not to mention all the other examples I have given, today?
As much as you are claiming that Paul says that all widows over 60, everywhere in every situation, are necessarily busybodies.And are you really saying that if there was a young widow who had lost her husband in war and who came to your church for help, you would all turn her away because Paul says that widows under 60 deserve no help and are gossiping busybodies?
Scholars such as F. C. Conybeare1 have claimed that the Trinitarian baptismal formula of Matthew 28:19 was not original to the text of Matthew. (F.C. Conybeare, "The Eusebian Form of the Text of Mt. 28:19," ZNW 2 (1901): 275-88.)
Paul was referring to the same gospel. He did not bring a different gospel, had he done so he would of been a false teacher whom he severely chastised in his letters.
In Galatians 1:8-9. But even if we or an angel from heaven should preach a gospel other than the one we preached to you, let them be under God's curse! As we have already said, so now I say again: If anybody is preaching to you a gospel other than what you accepted, let them be under God's curse!
Paul preached the same gospel he received. If he didn't he would be a hypocrite and contradict his own words.
The idea behind that as presented by the video, is that before God had instituted church age (at Saul's conversion) by offering salvation directly to Gentiles, a person could only be save by becoming a proselyte, a convert to Judasim, though in this case Judasism that also accepted that Jesus Christ was & is the Jewish Messiah & King, which is what Jews currently reject.If Jesus’ gospel of the kingdom was only intended for the Jews why did Jesus say that it must be preached to the whole world, to all nations if it was only intended for one nation? Every other nation other than Israel is a Gentile nation.
“This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come.”
Matthew 24:14 NASB1995
According to this the gospel of the kingdom was not exclusively intended for the Jews.
That's all very interesting.Scholars such as F. C. Conybeare1 have claimed that the Trinitarian baptismal formula of Matthew 28:19 was not original to the text of Matthew. (F.C. Conybeare, "The Eusebian Form of the Text of Mt. 28:19," ZNW 2 (1901): 275-88.)
Here's a treatise you may want to look at: The Change of the Baptismal Formula in Matthew 28:19
Ah, but not the words or laws themselves.Their meaning is most definitely for the sons of God.
Yes, so do I. But we do not obey, or literally apply, those laws and teachings today.I find the defilement laws and their cleansing remedies to be a good picture of the nature of the spiritual defilement of sin and its absolute necessity of cleansing in repentance and confession for fellowship with God (1 Jn 1:8-10).
I find Leviticus most informative in its pattern of substitutionary atonement, giving me correct understanding of Jesus' atonement.
Useful, yes - applying to us and have to be obeyed, no.Once again, it seems the apostle Paul, who received his teaching from Jesus personally (Gal 1:11-12) is in disagreement with you (2 Tim 3:16). . ."All Scripture is God-breathed and useful. . ."
So you're not insisting that the words of the Bible all literally apply to us but are looking beyond them for the meaning.Answers to your questions in post #540:
Is the issue gold, braids, and expensive clothes, or is the issue ostentatiousness vs. modesty, decency and propriety?
Of course.What is ostentatious changes with the culture, but modesty, decency and propriety still remain the guideline.
Ok, so now we have to discern the people that Paul was writing to, the context and their circumstances.Because the others were not apostles to the Gentiles, only Paul was.
So you would say that women are second-class citizens; not able to learn, needing a man to look after us, able to be divorced for any reason, unclean at certain times of the month and after giving birth? That was the culture of the NT.You're going to have to decide if the culture determines your theology, or if the NT Scriptures determine your theology.
For me, it's a no-brainer.
He doesn't say that.So, in context, Paul is referring to teaching, authoritative to the assembly, as in a Pastor's role, not to praying and prophesying.
You're talking about 2 different things.In God's creation order (1 Tim 2:13-14), the man is head of the woman and, therefore, the woman is not to have authority over him in the assembly (as Pastor) or in the home, she is to be his helpmeet, not his head.
And you have just shown that you are talking about husband and wife - not whether or not a woman may take up the role of Pastor (a calling, but also a job) because God calls her to.The husband is to be head of the wife as Christ is head of the church (Eph 5:22) and as the church submits to Christ (Eph 5:24).
This isn't a Christian doctrine, it's church practice.We, nor our culture, have any authority to alter that doctrine.
Yet he does not say they are a command from the Lord.The instructions from Paul are from God, who is telling us exactly what he chooses.
First of all you claimed that it was a council which was transported to the 3rd heaven, now you are agreeing that it was Paul, and that when he was in that place, that's where he received his doctrine.Precisely. . .Paul received his doctrine from the third heaven (throne of God),
So not all the words of the apostles are for all of us today because there are some situations in which they don't apply?We apply all apostolic teaching only to the situations to which they apply.
Which is why there was a huge campaign to abolish it, I suppose.Slavery as ordained by God is not immoral.
I'm talking about slaves.So I would suggest that as Paul taught all masters should be good and just to their slaves, so all employers should be the same to their employees,
Yeah I completely disagree with this idea because it means that salvation will go back to obedience to the law but the problem is that salvation was never about obedience to the law, it’s always been about faith. The author of the video fails to realize that. I think he needs to read Romans 4 again because Paul made it clear that Abraham was not saved by obedience but by faith. His idea of the gospel of obedience and the gospel of the law are contradictory to Paul’s lesson in Romans 4 concerning how Abraham was saved. He’s struggling with trying to reconcile reformed theology with the scriptures because it’s a false theology and as a result he is forced to eliminate the teachings of Christ during His ministry in order to make his theology work.The idea behind that as presented by the video, is that before God had instituted church age (at Saul's conversion) by offering salvation directly to Gentiles, a person could only be save by becoming a proselyte, a convert to Judasim, though in this case Judasism that also accepted that Jesus Christ was & is the Jewish Messiah & King, which is what Jews currently reject.
So according to this theologians view, after the rapture & the church age is over then that same gospel ie 'the Gospel of the Kingdom' will again be preached as the way to be saved.
Paul specifically tells us what “my gospel” is in Romans 2. It’s the same exact gospel that Christ preached during His ministry. Everyone will be judged according to their deeds and it’s not the hearers of the law who will be justified but the doers of the law who will be justified. Paul specifically stated in Romans 2 that this “according to my gospel”.The idea behind that as presented by the video, is that before God had instituted church age (at Saul's conversion) by offering salvation directly to Gentiles, a person could only be save by becoming a proselyte, a convert to Judasim, though in this case Judasism that also accepted that Jesus Christ was & is the Jewish Messiah & King, which is what Jews currently reject.
So according to this theologians view, after the rapture & the church age is over then that same gospel ie 'the Gospel of the Kingdom' will again be preached as the way to be saved.
Acts 1: 5. For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.”HUH?
The rule is here first…You asked, "who made that rule?"
I was trying to establish what rule you meant.
We are saved through faith in the works of our Lord Jesus Christ. All scripture is God breathed and profitable to man. This is true wether it is Genesis, Revelation or anywhere in between.Twice Paul said my Gospel in Rom2v16 and 16v25.
This is our Gospel, of Grace by Faith, that we have had for the last 2000yrs. No one has been saved by the 1st Gospel of the Kingdom, found in Matt, Mark, Luke and John, since all those years ago.
This was because it was for the Jews only, as a Gospel of works, where by they have to endure to the end to be saved.
We don’t have works, just Grace by Faith, which is the free gift of God.
Unfortunately all denominations and non denominations are man made, dating back to Emperor Constantine, who to appease the Goths, Huns and Vandals, who were attacking Rome, allowed their paganism into the Church, and all subsequent churches and religions. They all mix the 2 Gospels together, making them void.
Church is ekklesia in the Greek, meaning called out ones, so for most going along with your particular brand of Christianity, along with adherence to all the rules, and rituals, think again!
His Grace is sufficient, nothing added. Eph2v8, God’s free gift to us.
The whole bible was written for us, but only Paul’s 13 Epistles were written to us!