Anyone that thinks there are two creation accounts here, rather than one, are simply confused is all. It's not even logical that there could be two entirely different creations here.
Here's some of my reasoning why there couldn't possibly be two creation accounts between the two.
Genesis 2:21 And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof;
22 And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man.
23 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.
What does this obviously and undeniably tell us, especially in light of verse 23? It tells us that until the LORD God first caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman---that there was no such thing as a woman at this point, meaning of the human species. A woman is obviously a female, so that means until God did these things first with Adam and one of his ribs, there was not yet any such thing as the female human species. There was only the male human species until this occurred.
And Adam himself proves it as well by what he said here----And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man. IOW she is a female of the human species, obviously and undeniably.
Let's now look at Genesis 1.
Genesis 1:27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
This is obviously talking about the human species. A male is obviously meaning a man. A female is obviously meaning a woman. Genesis 2 tells us there was no such thing as a woman of the human species until God made one from Adam. Adam said she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man. Why would Adam have said that if a woman or women(as in plural), meaning female/s, were already created via a previous creation, meaning the 6th day in Genesis 1? How can both accounts not be referring to the same events? It's not even remotely logical that there could be two entirely different creations between Genesis 1 and 2. One can't have the female human species already existing and not existing, at the same time, where we learn from Genesis 2 that the female human species didn't even exist as of yet until God made a female from the man.