Once again, you take a couple of minutes to copy and paste a few verses, ASSUME your ideas into those verses without giving any proof whatsoever that those verses even back your assumptions.
This passage says nothing at all about God violating man's free will. The context of Romans 9 is about God casting His once chosen Jews off (Romans 11:20-20) and Paul is arguing in Romans 9 that God was just in doing so. Paul is refuting the objections he knew the Jews would have in God casting them off. Roamns 9 is not a discourse on Calvinsim but a refutation of Calvinism.
Romans 9:19 "Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?"
It was in God's plan before the world began that Christ would come to earth and shed His blood for the sins of man. God foreknew at the time He sent Christ that those Jews would use their free will to reject Christ and crucify Him. Christ's message hardened the heart of those Jews for they did not like it. So God used those Jew's free will rebellion against Christ to bring about His will in Christ dying for man.
So verse 19 is the Jews posing the question that God hardened their heart (not against their will but by sending them a message they did not like) and God used their disobedience to further His will in bring about Christ's death, then how can God find fault with us Jews?
Yet Paul shows the Jews were responsibile for their own free will in hardenng their own hearts and rejecting Christ and God has the right to use their rebellion to further His will. Because God can use man's rebellion to further His will does not excuse man's rebellion therefore God was just in cutting the Jews off for their rebellion against Christ.
Romans 9:20 "Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?"
Paul is questioning those Jews, who are you Jews to question God in having cast you off. Paul reaffirms in v20 that God has the right to use the free will choices of wicked, rebellious men to accomplish His own will. GOd does not need your permission to use you has He pleases. Yet NOT in any of this did God violate the Jew's free will but instead used their free will choices to advance His own will.
Romans 9:21 "Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?"
This verse does not give a basis as to why God makes one person a vessel of honor and another person a vessel of dishonor. But that does not mean GOd acts capriciously using no basis or that the basis is unknown.
Jeremiah 18:7-11 does NOT teach that God predestines men against their will but actually show God uses man's free will (whether men choose to do evil and OBEY NOT or OBEY by repenting) as to whether God shows mercy or not-- as to how God fashions vessels. Hence OBEDIENCE to God's will is the basis as to how God fashions one vessel unto honor (those that obey) and others to dishonor (the disobdient). 2 Timothy 2:20-21 "But in a great house there are not only vessels of gold and of silver, but also of wood and of earth; and some to honour, and some to dishonour. If a man therefore purge himself from these, he shall be a vessel unto honour, sanctified, and meet for the master's use, and prepared unto every good work."
Romans 9:22 "What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:"
Paul's point here to those cast off Jews is how can they be accusing God of being unjust in casting them off when God has been longsuffering towards you that you do the right thing.
2 Peter 3:15 the longsuffering of God is salvation. God was longsuffering of the rebellion of the Jews for centuries they might be saved, but now they have rejected Christ therefore God's longsuffering ended so God JUSTLY has now cast them off (Romans 11). God's longsuffering is to lead men to repentance (2 Peter 3:9) but if men refuse to repent with God having given them space to repent then God's wrath upon them is JUST and NOT against their will. Calvinism makes NO SENSE AT ALL in having God being longsuffering towards those He already predetermine to be lost against their will. One commentator puts it "(What a disgusting thing it would be to say: "Isn"t God wonderful for enduring those he eternally predestined to damnation (i.e. vessels of wrath fitted for destruction?!)" -Dunagan.
If Calvinism UNconditional election is true, then God would have not ever cast off His elect Jews and make the non-elect Gentiles His elect.
Romans 9
Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.
The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.
The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9:
14 What then shall we say?
Is God unjust? Not at all!
This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born,
but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).
Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?
If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?
This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.
Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9:
19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”
The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).
How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9:
30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith;
31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal.
32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.
Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.
Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11:
11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious.
12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!
The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.
If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11:
13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry
14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.
Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?
This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.
To understand this as
Common vessels and
special vessels look at the same idea using the
same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.
Just because Paul uses a Potter as being God in his analogy and Jerimiah uses a Potter as being God in his analogy, does not mean the analogies are conveying the exact same analogy. Jerimiah is talking about on one pot being change while still being malleable clay (which fits the changing of Israel), but Paul is talking about two pots (vessels) so they cannot both be Israel, the clay is the same for both and the clay is not changing the outcome of the pot. The two pots (vessels) are completed and a person is asking “Why did you make me like this”, so it is about “how a person is made (born)” and not a nation.
Since Jerimiah talks only about one pot on the wheel changing and Paul is talking about two kinds of completed pots (vessels), who are the two different pots?
Paul is saying in 2 Tim 2: 21 even after leaving the shop the common vessels can cleanse themselves and thus become instruments for a special purpose. So, who is the common vessel and who is the special vessel in this analogy?
That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.
The Jews were given a higher position on earth, but with that position came added responsibility which they poorly handled. I do not see them in Rome having any advantage over the gentile Christians, but what do you think?
I will add comments about Paul using Jerimiah’s reference to the Potter, since they are very different. In Jerimiah the pot has not been made and is still clay being molded by the Potter, with Paul the pots are completed and have gone forth.