LetsBeLogical said:
Matthew 1: 24,25 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS
Tell me ukok what does "knew her not TILL she brought forth her firstborn son" mean?
Well. Let's compare the way that "until" is used in some other biblical verses:
Matt 28.20: "..and surely I am with you always, until the end of the age."
John 21.22: Jesus answered. "If I want him to remain alive until I return, what is that to you?"
2 Sam 6.23: "no son was born to Michol, the daughter of Saul until her dying day."
In all these examples, the word "until" does not mean that Jesus will cease to be with us after the end of the age, that John was intended to die should he still be alive when Jesus returned, or that Michol had a son after death. The word "until" shows that the writer is concerned to inform us what happens
before a specific event - not after.
Also if Jesus is the only child then why is he called the "firstborn son". Are others in the scriptures called firstborns if no one else came after them? You arent firstborn unless another is born after you yes?
To quote John Calvin on this very point:
Our Lord Jesus Christ is called the first born. This is not because there was a second or a third, but because the gospel writer is paying regard to precedence. Scripture speaks thus of naming the first-born whether or not there was any question of the second."
John Calvin; "Sermon on Matthew", published 1562
Luke 2:43,44 And when they had fulfilled the days, as they returned, the child Jesus tarried behind in Jerusalem; and Joseph and his mother knew not of it. 44 But they, supposing him to have been in the company, went a day's journey; and they sought him among their kinsfolk and acquaintance
Now heres a big problem. What do you think the company was that they thought Jesus was in? How could they assume he was with them if he was an only child? Makes no sense does it?
Makes perfect sense. Jesus's ENTIRE FAMILY went to Jerusalem for the Passover, in Luke 2.44. Mary, Joseph, Jesus and RELATIVES and friends. Although these relatives and friends are mentioned, there is
no mention of any other children. Since Jesus was twelve at the time, and if we take references to "brothers and sisters" of Jesus to be Mary's children, then Mary, must have had at least SEVEN other surviving children apart from Jesus! (meaning about TWENTY babies considering infant mortality at the time) Surely at least one or two of them should have been mentioned here?
And are we to believe that
both Mary AND Joseph abandoned these other extremely young children to go back to Jerusalem (a days journey through bandit-filled country) and search for Jesus for three days? If Mary had had other young children it is extremely unlikely she would have abandoned them. So not only are no other children mentioned, but neither Mary or Joseph ACT is if they had any other children.
Here is the problem with Jesus siblings being only his cousins. Lets read the account of his "mother and brethren".
Matthew 12:46-50 While he yet talked to the people, behold, his mother and his brethren stood without, desiring to speak with him.
47 Then one said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to speak with thee.
48 But he answered and said unto him that told him, Who is my mother? and who are my brethren?
So now lets translate this the way you say so that it reads "Who is my mother? And who are my cousins? Sounds good so far yes?
49 And he stretched forth his hand toward his disciples, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren!
Lets do the same here. "Behold my mother and my cousins"
Ha Ha! Total nonsense, and based on a misunderstanding of language. The Aramaic word, commonly translated "brother" in English, does not mean specifically "cousin" either. It means "close kinsman". So jesus said "Behold my mother and my kinsmen."
Since there is no mention of Mary except very briefly after Jesus death and ressurection (which is strange considering how important you make her to be) then it doesnt say.
Read Revelation Ch 12. There you will see Mary Assumed in Heaven.
However, we do know that flesh and blood cant inherit Gods kingdom and if Mary went body and soul into heaven then of course someone is lying. Either the bible or the people that "made up" something they have no proof of. Which is it?
?????

Have you heard about Enoch? Have you heard about Elijah? They were both taken bodily into heaven. Is that a lie? Heard about the bodily resurrection? Jesus's bodily Ascension into heaven. You must know about that!
I already quoted the text that shows she made a sin offering although you refuse to accept it. However, I dont see any exceptions when the bible says that "all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God". Also Romans 5:12 says "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned". I dont see it showing any exceptions for Mary. Infact, why is she not mentioned any longer after Jesus ascention to heaven? Seems odd doesnt it?
This is another old chestnut.
The word used for ALL in this passage (Greek PAS), is widely used in the new Testament, and
does not have the meaning that you want to ascribe to it. PAS
does not mean "All - 100%, no exceptions". It is a looser, rhetorical word.
John 12:19, "
All (pas) the world has gone after him!" Did everyone in the entire world really go after Christ?
Mt 3:5-6, "
Then went out to Him Jerusalem, and ALL (PAS) Judea, and ALL (PAS) the region about the Jordan; and they were baptized by him in the Jordan, confessing their sins."
Were
all of the people of Judea, and the region about the Jordan baptized?
Luke 2:1
"And an order went out from Caesar Augustus that ALL (PAS) the world should be counted."
Was everyone in the whole world counted?
Unless PAS means "All - 100% without exceptions",
which it clearly does not, its use in Romans cannot be used as an argument against the sinlessness of Mary.