Man of Lawlessness

eclipsenow

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The Jab is an example of God's general grace to an undeserving humanity, where God has blessed us with smart people able to help mitigate the effects of pandemics (which will be a part of these "Last Days" - 2000 years and counting - as seen in Revelation). We are in a fallen world, and get sick and worried. God let our first pandemic in 1000 years mainly target the old (mercy) and be mainly preventable with these vaccines.

As for anyone asserting 'we don't know what are in these syringes' - that's just paranoid nonsense. The various public health agencies like the FDA around the world can study them - and basically any doctor with left over vaccine can have a look under a microscope to check for 'tracking chips'. :doh:The vaccines work, reduce sickness and even a little spread, and are marvellous. We should be thanking God for them, not spreading dangerous disinformation. That's simply not rational, not caring, and not even very Christian behaviour. Please stop it.
 
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Valletta

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"...all the same names are applied to the Pope."
You omitted the part of the sentence just before, why not let people at least see the whole sentence? How about the whole passage? Which names did the saint actually apply to the pope? I am not afraid to show people the whole sentence:
“All the names which in the Scripture are applied to Christ, by virtue of which it is established that He is over the church, all the same names are applied to the Pope.”
 
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jgr

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Which names did the saint actually apply to the pope?

He said "...all the same names are applied to the pope."

So he must have applied all of them (from Isaiah 9:6).

If not, tell us which ones he did not apply.

And why.
 
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The "last hour" is dated exactly when John said it was. He wrote to his readers in the first century that "...we know that IT IS the last hour". John meant that the "last hour" was currently in place as he was writing the epistle of 1 John.

If anyone has a problem with believing that very plain statement, they should remember the ridicule that Clinton received after his grand jury testimony in 1998, when he ridiculously stated, "It depends on what the definition of 'IS' is".
You are being far too literal about what time period the "last hour" entails.

Acts 2:16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; 17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams: 18 And on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy: 19 And I will shew wonders in heaven above, and signs in the earth beneath; blood, and fire, and vapour of smoke: 20 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and notable day of the Lord come: 21 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.

Peter indicated that the last days started long ago going back at least to the day of Pentecost and we're still in the last days now because people are still calling on the name of the Lord and being saved. What does that tell you about what "the last hour" really means when "the last days" have gone on for almost 2,000 years?
 
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Valletta

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He said "...all the same names are applied to the pope."

So he must have applied all of them (from Isaiah 9:6).

If not, tell us which ones he did not apply.

And why.
No, he did not. You avoided part of the sentence, again, which changes the meaning. Slick. If you think he "must have" it sounds like, also again, you failed to examine the complete text before accusing.
Take care. Exodus 23:1 “You shall not spread a false report. You shall not join hands with a wicked man to be a malicious witness." ESV
 
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jgr

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No, he did not. You avoided part of the sentence, again, which changes the meaning. Slick. If you think he "must have" it sounds like, also again, you failed to examine the complete text before accusing.
Take care. Exodus 23:1 “You shall not spread a false report. You shall not join hands with a wicked man to be a malicious witness." ESV

Why are you afraid to tell us which ones he did not apply?

Since Bro. Bellarmine wouldn't tell us, why don't you have a go at it?

Let's make it simple. Which of Messiah's Names in Isaiah 9:6 apply to the pope?

Awaiting with great interest.

Just to refresh your memory:

All the names which in the Scripture are applied to Christ, by virtue of which it is established that He is over the church, all the same names are applied to the Pope.”
 
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eclipsenow

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Acts 2:16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; 17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, ... And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.

....What does that tell you about what "the last hour" really means when "the last days" have gone on for almost 2,000 years?

THIS!

Also, Hebrews 1

In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe. 3 The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven.
Oh my - Last Days for 2000 years? It's almost as if there's no futurist timetable for us to decode? :oldthumbsup:

Also note how similar verse 3 is to the Son of Man coming before the Ancient of Days.

Daniel 7 (after whole paragraphs describing the Majesty of the Ancient of Days...)

“In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. 14 He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all nations and peoples of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed."

In other words - could it be that some of the references to Jesus coming in the clouds in the gospels are actually not about his return, but his resurrection victory and appearing before the Ancient of Days? Because while Matt 24 and Luke 21 are tricky - maybe - just maybe Peter Bolt is right - and Jesus is not coming to earth in some of those scenes - but returning to heaven from earth, coming before the ancient of days on the clouds of victory? If that's the case, and Daniel 7 is a heavenly vision of Jesus death and resurrection victory - then the kingdom is actually in eschatological tension. It's now, but not yet. It's the church, which reigns in Christ now, but will do so more fully after Judgement Day.

For as lightning that comes from the east is visible even in the west, so will be the coming of the Son of Man. 28 Wherever there is a carcass, there the vultures will gather.

29 “Immediately after the distress of those days

“‘the sun will be darkened,
and the moon will not give its light;
the stars will fall from the sky,
and the heavenly bodies will be shaken.’

30 “Then will appear the sign of the Son of Man in heaven. And then all the peoples of the earth will mourn when they see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven, with power and great glory. 31 And he will send his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other.

The sun WAS darkened when Jesus died, the Son of Man died on the cross and his death and resurrection are being preached all over the world, making all the peoples of the world grieve their sin, and messengers are going all over the world gathering in people to the church.


 
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jgr

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You're not addressing the line of reasoning which John employs in this I John 2:18-19 text. John was using the then-present manifestation of the many antichrists in those days to prove that the "last hour" had already arrived. That "last hour" meant the "day of Christ", and the "gathering together unto Him" that Paul spoke of in II Thess. 2:1-2. Paul had said that the Man of Lawlessness (or The Antichrist) would show up FIRST, BEFORE Christ's return. John used that quote of Paul's to prove that the "last hour" just before Christ's return was then at hand, simply because many antichrists were already in existence. Those many antichrists in that "last hour" INCLUDED the manifesting of The Antichrist, just prior to Christ's return.

You interpret the last hour to be the Second Coming. Antichrist began in the NT Church, has continued in its innumerable manifestations, including the apostasized church of Rome, up to this moment; and will continue to do so until the end of the last hour.

All of these manifestations are on the 2,000 year continuum "FIRST, BEFORE Christ's return".

"The Antichrist" singular is a counterfeit product of the counter-reformation of the Jesuit arm of the apostasized church of Rome, and the father of futurism, Francisco Ribera. It has been ardently embraced by dispensational futurism in support of the also counterfeit rapture delusion.

Neither exists in Scripture.
 
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You are being far too literal about what time period the "last hour" entails.

LOL that's not the usual accusation that people make against Preterism. The typical accusation is that we don't take things literally enough; that Preterists always turn everything into a metaphor. Sorry to disappoint you!

The "last days" began (even earlier than Pentecost) with the ministry of Christ on earth to the "lost sheep of the house of Israel", as eclipsenow has just emphasized above. Hebrews 1:1 proves this by saying "God who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, hath in these last days spoken unto us by His Son, by whom also He made the worlds." So we know by this that Hebrews was written in the "last days".

Those "last days" had turned into "the last hour" by the time 1 John 2:18 was being written, when the many antichrists had already gone out from among John's readers, and the Man of Lawlessness and his restrainer were then in existence already, and known to the believers.

Finally, that "last hour" had progressed to "the time is AT HAND" in Revelation 1:3 and Revelation 22:10. This is a progressive narrowing down in time until the prophetic events were actually presently happening in John's days. When Christ once said "Rise up, let us go; lo, he that betrayeth me is AT HAND", He did not mean for the disciples to wait 2,000 years and counting for Judas to show up in the Garden of Gethsemane.
 
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Daniel 7 (after whole paragraphs describing the Majesty of the Ancient of Days...)

“In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. 14 He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all nations and peoples of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed."

In other words - could it be that some of the references to Jesus coming in the clouds in the gospels are actually not about his return, but his resurrection victory and appearing before the Ancient of Days? Because while Matt 24 and Luke 21 are tricky - maybe - just maybe Peter Bolt is right - and Jesus is not coming to earth in some of those scenes - but returning to heaven from earth, coming before the ancient of days on the clouds of victory?

Yes, I agree with you; that is most definitely Christ at His resurrection-day ascension in heaven in Daniel 7:13-14. No doubt in my mind. This is why Christ could tell the disciples before His final ascension 40 days later that "All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth..." Daniel 7:14 is describing the occasion in heaven of God giving that power unto the newly-resurrected Christ at that point.
 
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eclipsenow

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LOL that's not the usual accusation that people make against Preterism. The typical accusation is that we don't take things literally enough; that Preterists always turn everything into a metaphor. Sorry to disappoint you!

The "last days" began (even earlier than Pentecost) with the ministry of Christ on earth to the "lost sheep of the house of Israel", as eclipsenow has just emphasized above. Hebrews 1:1 proves this by saying "God who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, hath in these last days spoken unto us by His Son, by whom also He made the worlds." So we know by this that Hebrews was written in the "last days".

Those "last days" had turned into "the last hour" by the time 1 John 2:18 was being written, when the many antichrists had already gone out from among John's readers, and the Man of Lawlessness and his restrainer were then in existence already, and known to the believers.

Finally, that "last hour" had progressed to "the time is AT HAND" in Revelation 1:3 and Revelation 22:10. This is a progressive narrowing down in time until the prophetic events were actually presently happening in John's days. When Christ once said "Rise up, let us go; lo, he that betrayeth me is AT HAND", He did not mean for the disciples to wait 2,000 years and counting for Judas to show up in the Garden of Gethsemane.
Hi,
I'm not sure how your Gethsemane point applies - but it might be a KJV thing. (I'm allergic to thee's and thou's). But I love your reference to 1 John - so important in these discussions with futurists and their end-times-tables!


Dear children, this is the last hour; and as you have heard that the antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have come. This is how we know it is the last hour. 19 They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us. For if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us; but their going showed that none of them belonged to us.

20 But you have an anointing from the Holy One, and all of you know the truth. 21 I do not write to you because you do not know the truth, but because you do know it and because no lie comes from the truth. 22 Who is the liar? It is whoever denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a person is the antichrist—denying the Father and the Son. 23 No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also.​
 
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THIS!

Also, Hebrews 1

In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe. 3 The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven.
Oh my - Last Days for 2000 years? It's almost as if there's no futurist timetable for us to decode? :oldthumbsup:

Also note how similar verse 3 is to the Son of Man coming before the Ancient of Days.

Daniel 7 (after whole paragraphs describing the Majesty of the Ancient of Days...)

“In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. 14 He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all nations and peoples of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed."

In other words - could it be that some of the references to Jesus coming in the clouds in the gospels are actually not about his return, but his resurrection victory and appearing before the Ancient of Days? Because while Matt 24 and Luke 21 are tricky - maybe - just maybe Peter Bolt is right - and Jesus is not coming to earth in some of those scenes - but returning to heaven from earth, coming before the ancient of days on the clouds of victory? If that's the case, and Daniel 7 is a heavenly vision of Jesus death and resurrection victory - then the kingdom is actually in eschatological tension. It's now, but not yet. It's the church, which reigns in Christ now, but will do so more fully after Judgement Day.

For as lightning that comes from the east is visible even in the west, so will be the coming of the Son of Man. 28 Wherever there is a carcass, there the vultures will gather.

29 “Immediately after the distress of those days

“‘the sun will be darkened,
and the moon will not give its light;
the stars will fall from the sky,
and the heavenly bodies will be shaken.’

30 “Then will appear the sign of the Son of Man in heaven. And then all the peoples of the earth will mourn when they see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven, with power and great glory. 31 And he will send his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other.

The sun WAS darkened when Jesus died, the Son of Man died on the cross and his death and resurrection are being preached all over the world, making all the peoples of the world grieve their sin, and messengers are going all over the world gathering in people to the church.

Sorry, but I disagree with you on this. I don't believe that Christ's ascension to heaven is alluded to at all in the Olivet Discourse. I believe He spoke about 2 events. One related to the destruction of the temple buildings in Jerusalem which happened in 70 AD and one related to His future second coming at the end of this temporal age. And He talked about things that would happen on an ongoing basis in between those events as well (wars, rumors of wars, earthquakes, false Christs, etc.).

I believe Matthew 24:29-31 is talking about the same event as 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17.
 
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LOL that's not the usual accusation that people make against Preterism. The typical accusation is that we don't take things literally enough; that Preterists always turn everything into a metaphor. Sorry to disappoint you!
I'm an Amillennialist, so I know all about being accused of not taking things literally enough.

The "last days" began (even earlier than Pentecost) with the ministry of Christ on earth to the "lost sheep of the house of Israel", as eclipsenow has just emphasized above. Hebrews 1:1 proves this by saying "God who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, hath in these last days spoken unto us by His Son, by whom also He made the worlds." So we know by this that Hebrews was written in the "last days".

Those "last days" had turned into "the last hour" by the time 1 John 2:18 was being written, when the many antichrists had already gone out from among John's readers, and the Man of Lawlessness and his restrainer were then in existence already, and known to the believers.

Finally, that "last hour" had progressed to "the time is AT HAND" in Revelation 1:3 and Revelation 22:10. This is a progressive narrowing down in time until the prophetic events were actually presently happening in John's days. When Christ once said "Rise up, let us go; lo, he that betrayeth me is AT HAND", He did not mean for the disciples to wait 2,000 years and counting for Judas to show up in the Garden of Gethsemane.
I don't buy any of that. The "last days" and "last hour" were going on at the same time and are still going on today as evidenced by the fact that people are still calling on the name of the Lord and being saved and there are still many antichrists out there.

What you don't understand about references to things that are "at hand" sometimes just refer to things that are happening on an ongoing basis and sometimes refer to things that are continually approaching and are certain to happen at some point, but not necessarily literally soon. But, you take those phrases very literally every time and it leads you to believe that things have already happened which I believe have clearly not happened yet. It's quite clear that, at the very least, Christ's second coming, the resurrection of the dead, the judgment and the ushering in of the new heavens and new earth have not happened yet.
 
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It's quite clear that, at the very least, Christ's second coming, the resurrection of the dead, the judgment and the ushering in of the new heavens and new earth have not happened yet.

But God never intended to resurrect everyone in one fell swoop. He planned to execute the resurrection of His saints in three separate stages. The Matthew 27 resurrected saints were only a small fraction of the total - that "remnant of the dead" which came to life again that same day Christ arose. That's how the whole Hymeneus and Philetus heresy got started. Those men looked at (and/or heard of) this number of resurrected Jews, and presumed that this was the only resurrection event that would ever take place. Of course it wasn't. God intended to "harvest" all the bodies of His saints, but it would be in two more scheduled resurrection events. The AD 70 resurrection event (that almost all the NT books wrote about) is long past. But we too, will take part in the final resurrection event in our future. God is perfectly capable of having a judgment at more than one occasion.

If you can acknowledge the past group of Matthew 27 resurrected saints, then you already can agree to at least two resurrections. Why not a third? Especially when Christ and the vast majority of the NT books taught that one of those resurrections would happen in that first-century generation. This was done using more than just words like "At hand", "soon", "quickly", "shortly", etc. Christ used whole sentences and even parables to illustrate the imminence of the resurrection and His coming return. There are multiplied examples of this; so many, that I marvel it took me so many decades to recognize what these passages were saying.

As for the New Heavens and New Earth, this was NOT describing the afterlife experience. There are too many things Isaiah included in his description of the New Heavens and New Earth that can only be a feature of normal living conditions on earth for believers, and which could not possibly be taking place in their afterlife existence.
 
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But God never intended to resurrect everyone in one fell swoop.
Sure, He did.

1 Corinthians 15:20 But Christ has indeed been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21 For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. 22 For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive. 23 But each in turn: Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him.

What this passage is saying is that all will be resurrected but there is an order to it. Christ Himself was the first to be resurrected unto bodily immortality, as other scripture indicates as well (Acts 26:23, Col 1:18, Rev 1:5). Next in order are all of those who belong to Him at His future coming. That's it. Paul said nothing else about any other time that believers will be resurrected. Keep in mind that the context here is being resurrected unto bodily immortality so the resurrection of Lazarus and others who were resurrected with their same mortal bodies doesn't apply here.

1 Corinthians 15:50 I declare to you, brothers and sisters, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable. 51 Listen, I tell you a mystery: We will not all sleep, but we will all be changed— 52 in a flash, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet. For the trumpet will sound, the dead will be raised imperishable, and we will be changed. 53 For the perishable must clothe itself with the imperishable, and the mortal with immortality

This passage is speaking of the same mass resurrection of the dead in Christ that he alluded to earlier in 1 Cor 15 in verses 22 and 23. It will happen at the last trumpet and Paul made it clear that we will all be changed to have immortal bodies at that time. These passages are referring to the same event as Paul wrote about in 1 Thess 4:14-17 which clearly portrays the dead in Christ all being raised at the same time.

Jesus also made it quite clear that only one time was coming when all of the dead would be raised.

John 5:28 “Do not be amazed at this, for a time is coming when all who are in their graves will hear his voice 29 and come out—those who have done what is good will rise to live, and those who have done what is evil will rise to be condemned.

Why do you not accept what these passages clearly teach?

He planned to execute the resurrection of His saints in three separate stages. The Matthew 27 resurrected saints were only a small fraction of the total - that "remnant of the dead" which came to life again that same day Christ arose.
There is no indication whatsoever that those people were resurrected and changed to have immortal bodies. If they were, then why did Paul not reference them in 1 Corinthians 15:22-23 when he spoke about the order of resurrections unto bodily immortality?

That's how the whole Hymeneus and Philetus heresy got started. Those men looked at (and/or heard of) this number of resurrected Jews, and presumed that this was the only resurrection event that would ever take place.
No, the heresy had to do with them claiming that the resurrection of the dead unto immortality had already taken place. It had not yet taken place at all because all of the dead in Christ will be resurrected unto immortality at the same time when Christ returns at the last trumpet.

Of course it wasn't. God intended to "harvest" all the bodies of His saints, but it would be in two more scheduled resurrection events. The AD 70 resurrection event (that almost all the NT books wrote about) is long past.
There was no AD 70 resurrection event. Where do you think that is mentioned?

But we too, will take part in the final resurrection event in our future. God is perfectly capable of having a judgment at more than one occasion.
Of course He's capable of doing anything, but we have to go by what scripture says He will do and scripture very clearly says that He will resurrect all of the dead in Christ at the same time which will be when Christ returns in the future at the last trumpet.

If you can acknowledge the past group of Matthew 27 resurrected saints, then you already can agree to at least two resurrections.
I don't acknowledge that they were resurrected unto bodily immortality because Paul did not mention them when giving the order of resurrections unto bodily immotality in 1 Corinthians 15:22-23.

Why not a third? Especially when Christ and the vast majority of the NT books taught that one of those resurrections would happen in that first-century generation.
That is simply not true. Tell me how you are coming to that conclusion.

As for the New Heavens and New Earth, this was NOT describing the afterlife experience. There are too many things Isaiah included in his description of the New Heavens and New Earth that can only be a feature of normal living conditions on earth for believers, and which could not possibly be taking place in their afterlife existence.
I don't know what you're talking about here. Can you elaborate? I believe the new heavens and new earth will be ushered in at a future time. At that point there will be no more death, crying, sorrow or pain, as John said (Revelation 21:4). That has clearly not happened yet. It will happen when Christ returns and burns up the heavens and earth and renews them, results in the new heavens and new earth where only righteousness will dwell (2 Peter 3:10-13).
 
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eclipsenow

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Sorry, but I disagree with you on this. I don't believe that Christ's ascension to heaven is alluded to at all in the Olivet Discourse. I believe He spoke about 2 events. One related to the destruction of the temple buildings in Jerusalem which happened in 70 AD and one related to His future second coming at the end of this temporal age. And He talked about things that would happen on an ongoing basis in between those events as well (wars, rumors of wars, earthquakes, false Christs, etc.).

OK - that's a perfectly respectable view - but which bits were back then and which bits are now? Also, I may not have presented it accurately. Try watching my own Pastor Tom Barrett here. I got some details wrong: EG: the lightning IS Jesus return, from east to west, unmistakable - in contrast to the rumours that he might have returned. (Those false rumours people spread in false hope during an apocalyptic thing like a 7 month siege.)

Please watch this - I've saved it to where Tom starts to talk about the Arch of Titus and the fall of Jerusalem. It's about 10 minutes and it's very practical and pastoral near the end. He explains some more about the "sun and moon" and Jesus "on the clouds" etc.


Also, if you have more time for reading, even fairly big names in Sydney Anglican circles are still struggling with the Boltian point of view and the 'this generation'

The coming of the Son of Man: when? (Part 1)

The coming of the Son of Man: when? (Part 2)

Some Sydney Anglican characters appear in the comments section as well
 
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Spiritual Jew

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OK - that's a perfectly respectable view - but which bits were back then and which bits are now?
I'll just tell you which verses I generally see as referring to things related to 70 AD, which verses refer to things ongoing generally throughout the New Testament era and which refer to the future day when Christ returns at the end of the age.

Verses related to things occurring around 70 AD: Matthew 24:1-3, 15-22. Mark 13:1-4, 14-20. Luke 21:5-7, 20-24a.

Ongoing things up until His future return at the end of the age: Matthew 24:4-14, 23-26. Mark 13:5-13, 21-23. Luke 21:8-19, 24b.

Things that happen on the day Christ returns at the end of the age (Matthew 24:3, 27-25:46. Mark 13:24-37. Luke 21:25-36.

Also, I may not have presented it accurately. Try watching my own Pastor Tom Barrett here. I got some details wrong: EG: the lightning IS Jesus return, from east to west, unmistakable - in contrast to the rumours that he might have returned. (Those false rumours people spread in false hope during an apocalyptic thing like a 7 month siege.)

Please watch this - I've saved it to where Tom starts to talk about the Arch of Titus and the fall of Jerusalem. It's about 10 minutes and it's very practical and pastoral near the end. He explains some more about the "sun and moon" and Jesus "on the clouds" etc.
No offense, but I wasn't asking for any help in understanding the Olivet Discourse. I'm not really into having people showing me videos on here and watching those. I'm talking to you. I'd like to know YOUR thoughts. I hope I'm not coming across as harsh here. I say this any time anyone tries to get me to watch a video or read an article on here. I'm just not interested.

Also, if you have more time for reading, even fairly big names in Sydney Anglican circles are still struggling with the Boltian point of view and the 'this generation'

The coming of the Son of Man: when? (Part 1)

The coming of the Son of Man: when? (Part 2)

Some Sydney Anglican characters appear in the comments section as well
Thanks, but no thanks. Maybe if you gave me a summary we could discuss it if you want.
 
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