discipler7
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- Oct 5, 2017
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.discipler7 said:What about a First century married Jewish woman who enticed and had sexual intercourse with 1 or more young unmarried man.?
Not true.She would be put to death, along with any of the men she had intercourse with who were not her husband. Unless she was outside the city limits, where it would be assumed that she cried out for help and no one could hear her. Then only the men would be put to death. See Deuteronomy 22:22-27.
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A First century married Jewish woman who enticed and had sexual intercourse with 1 or more young unmarried man would not be put to death, along with any of the men she had intercourse with who were not her husband.
....... The First century Jewish Temple rulers had no legal authority to put any Jew to death under Moses Law. Only the Roman rulers had the authority to do so, eg the Roman governor, Pontius Pilate, authorized Jesus Christ to be put to death by crucifixion, even though it was the Jewish Temple rulers who made false accusations against Jesus as the rebel "King of the Jews". Roman Law permitted adultery, fornication, incest, sodomy, homosexuality and prostitution but not insurrection/rebellion.
Similarly, the 21st century US Church has no legal authority to put to death a married Christian woman who enticed and had sexual intercourse with 1 or more young unmarried man, along with any of the men she had intercourse with who were not her husband. US Law permits adultery, fornication, sodomy and homosexuality.
....... This similarly applies to 21st century US Jewish synagogues, ie they do not have the legal authority to put Jewish adulterers to death as per Moses Law.
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