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Lord's Supper - Wine or Grape Juice?

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Interesting. BTW, Angel of the Lord with a capital "A" refers to Jesus in the Old Testament theophanies. Here it just says "an angel of the Lord."

Yes, I agree. In this case in the New Testament, I believe the "angel of the Lord" that rolled the stone away was simply an angel. But in the OT, this was a reference to Christ. I created a thread on Christ's appearances in the Old Testament here:

Jesus is the Messenger of the Lord in the Old Testament.

Granted, Christ is not a created angelic being. I believe Christ simply took on the empty soul-less shell of a body of angels (kind of like an angel suit) so as to house his glory as God. For people cannot look upon the face of God and live. Anyways, Jesus is the second person of the Godhead or the Trinity (Who is the Eternal God). The link (above) provides Scriptural references to Christ's appearances in the Old Testament.
 
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I was looking at Matthew 27:62-64 earlier today (and I was thinking the same thing).
 
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1stcenturylady

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I was looking at Matthew 27:62-64 earlier today (and I was thinking the same thing).

I never noticed it before and I've read it a number of times, of course, over the years. Why call it the day after the preparation day? Why not call it the Sabbath if that was what it was. But, just curious. Would they really be legal to do that on the Feast of Unleavened Bread either? Could they work on a feast day? I'm not sure. They sure did break a lot of commandments!
 
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I believe the Jews had kept the wrong day. They were a day behind Jesus.
Jesus kept the Passover at the right time the night before (with a New Covenant Passover involving His disciples) and the Jew's traditions had got it wrong.
The Jews were preparing for the Passover the next day at the wrong time when the official Passover already took place. The Jews called it the "Preparation Day." on the day Christ was crucified and they were preparing to sacrifice the Lambs. But they were a day behind Jesus (Who kept the Passover at the right time).

I do not believe the 15th is the first day of unleavened bread.
I believe the 14th was the first day of unleavened bread.

First, nowhere does Leviticus 23:4-6 actually use the words "first" or the "first day" of unleavened bread. It merely says it is the (or "a") feast of unleavened bread.

Second, Matthew 26:17 calls the first day of unleavened bread as the Passover. Luke 22:1 says,
"Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover." Unleavened bread was to be eaten on the Passover Day, which began at the evening of the 14th (Gentile Tuesday night, Jewish 4th Day of the Week).

"Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses:" (Exodus 12:15).

The first day is the Passover and it is a holy convocation (like a Sabbath).

"In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even, ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even." (Exodus 12:18).



Anyways, getting back to the Jews keeping the wrong day:
The next day for them would have been the 14th Passover (Which was not a Sabbath).
However, in reality, those Jews who followed Jesus knew better and knew that it was really the 15th (Which was a High Sabbath).
 
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1stcenturylady

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I don't believe they got it wrong. The Passover meal would have been at the beginning of the 14th, the evening of our 13th. The 14th would have been the preparation day for the actual festival that started on the 15th and lasted a number of days. Either 7 or 8. And the feast of first fruits would be the day after the first Sabbath after Passover. But, personally, I find it strange that they call the Passover day as being a preparation day. I may be wrong.

I was under the impression that the Resurrection was on the 17th. But that would only be true if you are right and he rose at 3pm on the 17th. One thing interesting is that Matthew 28:1 in the original says the sabbaths/plural.

28 And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulchre,

I think I've read it translated a little differently as well, but also using the plural of sabbaths. I think it is interesting seeing as some say there are no sabbaths but the weekly Sabbath. But any feast that requires preparation because no work, servial or otherwise, can be done is a sabbath.
 
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1stcenturylady

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The first day of unleavened bread is the 15th, but because Passover is just the day before, they combine them, making the Passover the "first" day.

Good night, my friend.
 
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1stcenturylady

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They still PAID them, those naughty Pharisees! They preach the law, but don't obey it.
 
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mmksparbud

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They still PAID them, those naughty Pharisees! They preach the law, but don't obey it.

Yes--but they paid them on resurrection day!! after Sabbath! Technically, they could say they did not break it---naughty---they were evil and corrupt and very sneaky.
 
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Antig

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I suggest you do more research.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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You are not listening again, in Judaism ANY part of a day is counted as the whole of it. Synecdoche. By the way, He said 3 DAYS and 3 Nights, not 3 NIGHTS and 3 days...since you want to be snippy about it...your count starts with a night...
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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No Jew sealed the tomb. They were Roman soldiers. It was sealed with a Roman seal.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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While I do believe the KJV is inspired and perfect, I believe Modern Translations are more clearer on what Luke 24:21 says.

James Murdock Translation says, “And lo, three days [have passed], since all these things occurred.”

Read the original Greek...you are wrong
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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Interesting. BTW, Angel of the Lord with a capital "A" refers to Jesus in the Old Testament theophanies. Here it just says "an angel of the Lord."

It is not interesting, it is wrong...scripturally. We KNOW He rose on the 1st day of the week (Sunday), not on Shabbat at 3 PM. He rose anytime AFTER sunset (which would be Sunday). ALL Scripture says this.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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Where does it say that? It is not in the original Greek text...
 
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It was not possible for Jew to be uncircumcised either, yet we're not Jews: we're Christians, so Baptism is what we are concerned with. Circumcision for us serves only as a metaphor prefiguring Baptism. It was not possible for Jew to eat pig meat. We're not Jews: we're Christians. We don't need to be circumcised and we are permitted to eat pig meat. We could even eat meat that was part of an offering to idols. Was it lawful for Jewish high priests to do that? There are many ancient Jewish standards spelled out in Leviticus that we are not obligated to perform. Many elements of Jewish temple worship do remain in the Orthodox Christian Liturgy even today. But we are Christians nonetheless, and many elements of the Jewish religious practices were ignored by the early Church and remain so today.

Just FYI, the Orthodox Christian priestly practice is to mix water with Communion wine during the Liturgy of Preparation, before Liturgy even begins. But this custom is related to the testimony given in the Gospel of John that when Jesus' side was pierced with the spear, immediately blood and water flowed out. Also, immediately before Communion is given, the celebrants pour very hot water into the chalice containing the bread and wine. This not only dilutes the wine, but gives it warmth reminiscent of the "warmth of Faith that is full of the Holy Spirit". So it would seem that in Orthodox Liturgical practice, the wine is diluted with water.
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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We could even eat meat that was part of an offering to idols.

Acts 15:28-29 For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things; that ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication
 
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The wine received in Communion is REALLY, TRULY the blood of Christ. It is not harmful to either the body or soul of the recipient unless they receive it without "discerning the body and blood of Christ". Your concern with the alcoholic content of wine in Communion might be due to such a lack of discernment on your part. Do you believe that the "sanctified" contents of the chalice of which Orthodox Christians partake during Liturgy is indeed Christ's flesh and indeed His blood?

FYI, in Orthodox Communion only very small amounts are consumed by the faithful, no more than one time per day (less than half a teaspoon usually). Also, wine in small amounts is not bad for us. In small quantities it is actually good for us in its nutritional value.
 
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Acts 15:28-29 For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things; that ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication
You know the context in which I said this, and how the Christian principle taught in 1 Corinthians 8 is being brought in to bear on this discussion about whether it's okay to use wine in Communion. Perhaps you assume that I don't know the Scripture? Also, if we apply this Scripture quote of yours to our own Sacrament of Communion, we would have to abandon the Sacrament, which is what these heretical believers are saying we should do. Is this what you think we ought to do, seeing your Scripture quote also forbids us to drink any blood?
 
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Yeshua HaDerekh

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What does that have anything to do with Communion? These are all part of the Noahide laws for gentiles.
Do not murder, don't eat a live animal, do not participate in sexual sins, etc...
 
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