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Open Mouth.Remember also, the Orthodox do not really read Revelation.....
Because the premise of "Sola Scriptura" is a premise based on a false doctrine of men which nullifies the Word of God, and it must be combated at every opportunity.The thread title part that says "according to the scriptures alone" is a magnet for people who do NOT get their authority from the scriptures alone? Apparently so.....
Hi CC. Can you explain that for me? You also realize neither the Orthodox Jews or Muslims read that Book either so it must be purely and Orthodox/Catholic/Protestant only thing?Open Mouth.
Insert foot.
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The premise of Scripture nullifies Scripture???? How is that possible?Because the premise of "Sola Scriptura" is a premise based on a false doctrine of men which nullifies the Word of God, and it must be combated at every opportunity.
You say that an ancient 2000 year old church doesn''t read an entire book of the Bible, and you need me to explain why that is the equivalent of sticking your foot in your mouth? Come on man, keep it real.Hi CC. Can you explain that for me?.....
Becuase "Sola Scriptura" is not found in the Bible, which is a beautiful irony I must say. NOWHERE in the Bible does it say that the Bible is the SOLE rule of Christian teaching. But, that's where you end up when you break away from the 2000 year old Church Christ established.The premise of Scripture nullifies Scripture???? How is that possible?
Isa 8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.Becuase "Sola Scriptura" is not found in the Bible, which is a beautiful irony I must say. NOWHERE in the Bible does it say that the Bible is the SOLE rule of Christian teaching. But, that's where you end up when you break away from the 2000 year old Church Christ established.
There is a significant problem with this premise, namely the interpretation that "the day of the Lord" that John was speaking of is a future event.Is the first chapter of revelations speaking of sunday when it mentions the Lord’s day? Or is it speaking about the Day of the Lord? When Jesus returns to set up His kingdom. Well, first of all ya should easily be able to figure that out by reading Revelations. Its mostly about the things that will happen on the “day of the Lord”, when Jesus returns, gets rid of the bad guys and sets up His 1000 yr period of rest. The scriptures below are speaking of the same exact things that will take place on the “day of the Lord”.
REV.1 [7] Behold, HE COMETH WITH CLOUDS; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of THE EARTH SHALL WAIL because of him. Even so, Amen.[8] I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.[9] I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ.[10] I was in the Spirit on THE LORD'S DAY, and heard behind me a GREAT VOICE, as of A TRUMPET,
he cometh with clouds - of a trumpet - the Lord's day - a great voice - the earth shall wail
ZEPH.1 [14] The great DAY OF THE LORD is near, it is near, and hasteth greatly, even THE VOICE of the day of the LORD: the mighty man shall CRY THERE BITTERLY.[15] That day is a day of wrath, a day of trouble and distress, a day of wasteness and desolation, a day of darkness and gloominess, a DAY OF CLOUDS and thick darkness,[16] A day of THE TRUMPET and alarm against the fenced cities, and against the high towers
a day of clouds - of the trumpet - The great day of the LORD - even the voice - man shall cry there bitterly
Yup. Both scriptures, most definately the Day of the Lord. Nothing at all to do with sunday worship.
There is a significant problem with this premise, namely the interpretation that "the day of the Lord" that John was speaking of is a future event.Notice that John says that he was in the Spirit on the Lord's Day. See the "was?" The translators clearly understood this passage to refer to an event that had already happened, ie past tense.Yes, there will be a "day of the Lord," ie the parousia- but that is NOT what John was speaking of in Revelation.
BTW: It is Revelation singular, not Revelations plural.![]()
What other teaching does the bible say there is???Becuase "Sola Scriptura" is not found in the Bible, which is a beautiful irony I must say. NOWHERE in the Bible does it say that the Bible is the SOLE rule of Christian teaching.
2Th 2:15Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.What other teaching does the bible say there is???
Yes, that's what we have in the Scriptures. Or do you know of other words by Paul?
Hi Rdr. The Lord's day could be a Sabbath day possible such as after the Passover?There is a significant problem with this premise, namely the interpretation that "the day of the Lord" that John was speaking of is a future event.
Notice that John says that he was in the Spirit on the Lord's Day. See the "was?" The translators clearly understood this passage to refer to an event that had already happened, ie past tense.
Yes, there will be a "day of the Lord," ie the parousia- but that is NOT what John was speaking of in Revelation.
BTW: It is Revelation singular, not Revelations plural.![]()
http://biblelight.net/tradition-legate.htmYou asked: "What other teaching does the bible say there is???"
The oral traditions are your answer... 2Th 2:15 Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle...