LDS LDS Jesus Could Have Lost His Godhood

Barney2.0

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2 thoughts about this post:

1) Do the scriptures help us understand how his humanity was united with his divinity in perfect oneness?

2) Adam obvious had the ability to sin, because he did and fell out of his glorious status. So if Jesus was like unto Adam, he may also have had the ability to sin. Or explain that to me further?

Thank you.
Yes the scriptures do help us understand how his humanity was united to his divinity and etc. Adam did not originally have the inclination to sin, he only had free will, Adam didn’t suffer temptation to sin during his original creation, he only had pure free will. With this free will and at the devils urging Adam chose to know good and evil by eating from the tree thus he now knew sin and temptation and suffered its effects by becoming depraved and mortal and suffering death.
 
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mmksparbud

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Here are 3 chapter headings in "The Dialogue with Trypho" by Justin Martyr, a saint that lived around 140-150.

CHAPTER LXXI: THE JEWS REJECT THE INTERPRETATION OF THE LXX, FROM WHICH , MOREOVER, THEY HAVE TAKEN AWAY SOME PASSAGES.

CHAPTER LXXII: PASSAGES HAVE BEEN REMOVED BY THE JEWS FROM ESDRAS AND JEREMIAH

CHAPTER LXX111: [THE WORDS] "FROM THE WOOD" HAVE BEEN CUT OUT OF PS. XCVI

Well, as you can see from the words of a person that is known to be a saint in the Christian world, the Jews have played with the OT, which has tried to wipe out Jesus, calling Mary a 'young woman' rather than a 'young virgin', which would change the theology completely around, to where Jesus would not be God. So go online, look up "Dialogue with Trypho" and read all about it.

She was not called a young woman, she was called a young maid in the scriptures. Then one has to discount some things that Justin said because a maid and a virgin were considered the same thing.

Deu 22:13 If any man take a wife, and go in unto her, and hate her,
Deu_22:14 And give occasions of speech against her, and bring up an evil name upon her, and say, I took this woman, and when I came to her, I found her not a maid:

There is more than enough of the Dead Sea Scrolls to establish the fact that nothng has been left out.
 
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Barney2.0

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Personlly I am more impressed that he had the ability to sin and did not, than he was gifted with divinity that stopped him from sinning naturally.

Besides, if you are gifted not to sin, how can you properly judge people that are not gifted and are tempted of such things. You as one of the gifted cannot know the trials of temptation necessary to make it through even 1 day on earth. So can you judge righteously?
If Jesus had the inclinations to sin then he wasn’t sinless. He stilled had sinful inclinations this was sinful and couldn’t be a divine or a perfect man and thus couldn’t act as a perfect sacrifice to redeem mankind from death and sin. If Jesus was sinful he cannot be my savior nor would I accept him as one. On the contrary only one who is sinless can judge the sinful, this kind of reminds me of the story of Jesus and the adulteress (regardless of the story’s credibility). You seem to think that Jesus had been gifted some sort of special ability that made him not sin, no Jesus was God in the flesh and sin is foreign to God and God to sin. We in our perfect humanity that was made in the image of God became corrupted with sin and death and God in his inifinite love chose to become what we could never be again to we might be made back into his image and wrest back control for us that was taken from us from Satan. God became man so that man may become God, as Saint Athanasius once said, God didn’t become man so that man may remain man or for the fun of it like pagan deities did. God can’t be sinful or be tempted by sin, it’s simply not in his nature and since God didn’t create sin, he knows how it afflicts us and he knows our suffering very well and never wanted nor intended it for us.
 
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Barney2.0

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Here are 3 chapter headings in "The Dialogue with Trypho" by Justin Martyr, a saint that lived around 140-150.

CHAPTER LXXI: THE JEWS REJECT THE INTERPRETATION OF THE LXX, FROM WHICH , MOREOVER, THEY HAVE TAKEN AWAY SOME PASSAGES.

CHAPTER LXXII: PASSAGES HAVE BEEN REMOVED BY THE JEWS FROM ESDRAS AND JEREMIAH

CHAPTER LXX111: [THE WORDS] "FROM THE WOOD" HAVE BEEN CUT OUT OF PS. XCVI

Well, as you can see from the words of a person that is known to be a saint in the Christian world, the Jews have played with the OT, which has tried to wipe out Jesus, calling Mary a 'young woman' rather than a 'young virgin', which would change the theology completely around, to where Jesus would not be God. So go online, look up "Dialogue with Trypho" and read all about it.
I’ve seen this argument before come up in Islamic polemics. Both original readings are available to us, young women in the Hebrew as can be viewed in the Masoretic text and Dead Sea Scrolls and virgin in the Greek translation of the Septuagint. So any corruption Justin might have been refering to would have been regional ones such as in certain synagogues or oral corruption in which the Jews would simply omit certain passages or replace them orally. Nothing suggests the Jews universally corrupted manuscripts, for Justin himself to point out these corruptions he obviously must have the original readings with him. Not to mention the Jews even if they wanted to can’t corrupt every single manuscript out there, as some weren’t even in their possession, but in the possession of Christians, Samartians, and Gnostics. So nothing there proves the corruption of the Old Testament.
 
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Barney2.0

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Actually there are indeed theological changes in the different translations of the Bible:
What major discrepancies exist between "versions" of the Bible?
Both the Bible and the Book of Mormon were written by man, both were inspired by God through the Holy Spirit as also the Doctrine and Covenants, and the Pearl of Great Price. They all testify of God and teach the teachings of Jesus Christ.

Still no answer to how many prophets made mistakes like the failed prophecy of Isaiah.

There are many Gods and many Lords, but for us there is one God, the Father.

So why did the Egyptologists not pick up on the fact that the supposed dead man had his arms and legs in the air? I suspect that is not the only thing they were wrong about.
Most Bible variants can be viewed on the footnotes of your study Bible or it you have an academic translation, that’s how insignificant about 95% of them are. Even in comparing theologicaly driven translations such as the KJV to more modern academic ones such as the RSV or NRSV you won’t find many major differences. I myself expected to find quite a few when comparing them through online searches, but surprisingly I didn’t find many major theological differences between how they were translated. How do you get many gods and many lords, yet still one God called the Father? Hear oh Israel the Lord our God is One. There are no gods or lords beside him.
 
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Pedra

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If Jesus had the inclinations to sin then he wasn’t sinless. He stilled had sinful inclinations this was sinful and couldn’t be a divine or a perfect man and thus couldn’t act as a perfect sacrifice to redeem mankind from death and sin. If Jesus was sinful he cannot be my savior nor would I accept him as one. On the contrary only one who is sinless can judge the sinful, this kind of reminds me of the story of Jesus and the adulteress (regardless of the story’s credibility). You seem to think that Jesus had been gifted some sort of special ability that made him not sin, no Jesus was God in the flesh and sin is foreign to God and God to sin. We in our perfect humanity that was made in the image of God became corrupted with sin and death and God in his inifinite love chose to become what we could never be again to we might be made back into his image and wrest back control for us that was taken from us from Satan. God became man so that man may become God, as Saint Athanasius once said, God didn’t become man so that man may remain man or for the fun of it like pagan deities did. God can’t be sinful or be tempted by sin, it’s simply not in his nature and since God didn’t create sin, he knows how it afflicts us and he knows our suffering very well and never wanted nor intended it for us.
The bible says though He was tempted He did not sin.

Hebrews 4:15 (NASB)
"15 For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin."
 
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mmksparbud

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If Jesus had the inclinations to sin then he wasn’t sinless. He stilled had sinful inclinations this was sinful and couldn’t be a divine or a perfect man and thus couldn’t act as a perfect sacrifice to redeem mankind from death and sin. If Jesus was sinful he cannot be my savior nor would I accept him as one. On the contrary only one who is sinless can judge the sinful, this kind of reminds me of the story of Jesus and the adulteress (regardless of the story’s credibility). You seem to think that Jesus had been gifted some sort of special ability that made him not sin, no Jesus was God in the flesh and sin is foreign to God and God to sin. We in our perfect humanity that was made in the image of God became corrupted with sin and death and God in his inifinite love chose to become what we could never be again to we might be made back into his image and wrest back control for us that was taken from us from Satan. God became man so that man may become God, as Saint Athanasius once said, God didn’t become man so that man may remain man or for the fun of it like pagan deities did. God can’t be sinful or be tempted by sin, it’s simply not in his nature and since God didn’t create sin, he knows how it afflicts us and he knows our suffering very well and never wanted nor intended it for us.

If you can not be tempted, then it is no temptation. It is through His overcoming temptation that we are shown we, too, can do the same. If He could not be tempted, then He can not show us how to overcome it. He was both fully human and fully divine. As fully human, He overcame sin, that was the whole point.
It is no example to us if He was fully incapable of sin. Makes no sense for Him to have ever been tempted. No need for him to have gone without food for 40 days for it didn't matter to Him. It's ridiculous to think He went through all that being unable to fall---that took no strength of character at all. He hurt, He hungered, He was tempted. The whole point is to show us that through the power of God, the Holy Spirit--we can overcome sin. If Jesus could not have fallen, He overcame nothing. It is a slap in the face of Jesus to say that His temptations were nothing because He could do no sin and makes the bible nothing but a lie.

Heb_4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

It robs Jesus of His accomplishment over sin to say He could not haver sinned. You might as well say He felt no pain on the cross and did not suffer for He was divine and could not feel pain. It is a lie meant to diminish His achievements, which can be ours.
 
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Barney2.0

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The bible says though He was tempted He did not sin.

Hebrews 4:15 (NASB)
"15 For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin."
Being tempted and feeling temptation are two different things. God was tempted by Satan on a a number of occasions, but obviously he never felt any inclinations into Satan as God can’t feel temptation,
 
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Barney2.0

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If you can not be tempted, then it is no temptation. It is through His overcoming temptation that we are show we, too, can do the same. If He could not be tempted, then He can noit shiow us hiow to overcome it. He was both fully human and fully divine. As fully human, He overcame sin, that was the whole point.
It is no example to us if He was fully incapable of sin. Makes no sense for Him to have ever been tempted. No need for him to have gone without food for 40 days for it didn't matter to Him. It's ridiculous to think He went through all that being unable to fall---that took no strength of character at all. He hurt, He hungered, He was tempted. The whole point is to show us that through the power of God, the Holy Spirit--we can overcome sin. If Jesus could not have fallen, He overcame nothing. It is a slap in the face of Jesus to say that He temptations were nothing because He could do no sin and makes the bible nothing but a lie.

Heb_4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

It robs Jesus of His accomplishment over sin to say He could not haver sinned. You might as well say He felt no pain on the cross and did not suffer for He was divine and could not feel pain. It is a lie meant to diminish His achievements, which can be ours.
Being tempted with something doesn’t indicate an inclination into temptation.

Therefore the people contended with Moses, and said, “Give us water, that we may drink.” So Moses said to them, “Why do you contend with me? Why do you tempt the LORD?”

Exodus 17:2

Yes God can be tempted by people and tested, does he suffer from external temptation or internal temptation, the obvious answer is no.

2 Corinthians 5:21 also makes it clear that Jesus not only was sinless, but that he knew no sin, which means he was unable to sin or suffer from it.

God made him who had no sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.

If Jesus had inclination to sin then he wasn’t pure or righteous. The whole point of Christ’s temptation was to announce to Satan that his rule over mankind was over, Jesus even gave Satan every advantage in the conflict exposing himself weakening himself. If he was able to sin then he would have sinned, no one that is capable of winning hasn’t sinned and that’s on a normal basis, imagine if you were face to face with the origin of sin and death. Jesus suffered mentally and physically in his humanity during Satan’s testing of him, but he had no inclination or desires to sin. The moment you say he did was the moment he stops being God or a worthy sacrifice. Jesus did feel pain on the cross because he had a physical human body and human nature united to his divinity.
 
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mmksparbud

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Being tempted with something doesn’t indicate an inclination into temptation.

Therefore the people contended with Moses, and said, “Give us water, that we may drink.” So Moses said to them, “Why do you contend with me? Why do you tempt the LORD?”

Exodus 17:2

Yes God can be tempted by people and tested, does he suffer from external temptation or internal temptation, the obvious answer is no.

2 Corinthians 5:21 also makes it clear that Jesus not only was sinless, but that he knew no sin, which means he was unable to sin or suffer from it.

God made him who had no sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.

If Jesus had inclination to sin then he wasn’t pure or righteous. The whole point of Christ’s temptation was to announce to Satan that his rule over mankind was over, Jesus even gave Satan every advantage in the conflict exposing himself weakening himself. If he was able to sin then he would have sinned, no one that is capable of winning hasn’t sinned and that’s on a normal basis, imagine if you were face to face with the origin of sin and death. Jesus suffered mentally and physically in his humanity during Satan’s testing of him, but he had no inclination or desires to sin. The moment you say he did was the moment he stops being God or a worthy sacrifice. Jesus did feel pain on the cross because he had a physical human body and human nature united to his divinity.


You are free to have your believes. I am sorry, but this is nit one that I share at all. The bible clearly says He was tempted in all points as we are. He became human, but when needed, He could call upon His divinity. He was tempted as a human, like we are. There is no scriptural bases for the believe that He was not able to be tempted---just the opposite. Again, that totally diminishes His accomplishments. He was able to not sin in His humanity, and showed us we can to. Without that, He would not be able to be the propitiation for our sins. His sacrifice on the cross would have been for nothing. It took a sinless human---that is Christ--who is also still God and a mystery that we can not understand. He came to show us what we, as humans can do to overcome sin with the power of God. As Joseph turned away from Potiphar's' wife. He was fully God, He was fully human.

Heb 2:16 For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.
Heb 2:17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
Heb 2:18 For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.
 
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He is the way

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Most Bible variants can be viewed on the footnotes of your study Bible or it you have an academic translation, that’s how insignificant about 95% of them are. Even in comparing theologicaly driven translations such as the KJV to more modern academic ones such as the RSV or NRSV you won’t find many major differences. I myself expected to find quite a few when comparing them through online searches, but surprisingly I didn’t find many major theological differences between how they were translated. How do you get many gods and many lords, yet still one God called the Father? Hear oh Israel the Lord our God is One. There are no gods or lords beside him.
From the Bible:

(New Testament | 1 Corinthians 8:5 - 6)

5 For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)
6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

(Old Testament | Genesis 1:26)

26 ¶ And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

(Old Testament | Genesis 3:22)

22 ¶ And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:
 
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Peter1000

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Yes the scriptures do help us understand how his humanity was united to his divinity and etc. Adam did not originally have the inclination to sin, he only had free will, Adam didn’t suffer temptation to sin during his original creation, he only had pure free will. With this free will and at the devils urging Adam chose to know good and evil by eating from the tree thus he now knew sin and temptation and suffered its effects by becoming depraved and mortal and suffering death.
So you are saying that Adam 'chose' to know good and evil and it is then that he came under the influence of sin and temptation, in his fallen state?

How does Adams experience, explain how Jesus's humanity was united to his divinity? Please explain.
 
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Peter1000

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Being tempted with something doesn’t indicate an inclination into temptation.
Being tempted with something only means Jesus was tempted, whether he was inclined into temptation is a confusing statement. I only know he was tempted. I also know that he was not inclined to give in to that temptation. He, at all times upheld his sinless status, so that he clearly could be a man that we can worship and was certainly a worthy sacrifice, having overcome all the world could throw at him, even a cruel and torturous death. He is our Savior and our example. We can be like Jesus.

As you said in post #763, God became man so man could become God. Jesus was the perfect example to show us the way to do this. Thank you.

Yes God can be tempted by people and tested, does he suffer from external temptation or internal temptation, the obvious answer is no.
You say, God can be tempted, but not externally or internally? What other kind of temptation is there, parallel, or vertical temptation? You will need to explain further.

God made him who had no sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
God made him..... Jesus was made (created)?

If he was able to sin then he would have sinned, no one that is capable of winning hasn’t sinned and that’s on a normal basis, imagine if you were face to face with the origin of sin and death.

You think Jesus would have sinned, unless he was gifted to not sin from God?

When you say, imagine if you were face to face with the origin of sin and death, are you saying what if you were face to face with satan? You think, unless Jesus was again gifted to not sin, that he would have lost to satan's temptations?

The moment you say he did was the moment he stops being God or a worthy sacrifice.
The holy word of God says that he was, but yet also pronounces Jesus to be God, worthy of sacrifice. I think you need to study this out a little more. You are saying things that I have never heard a Christian say.
 
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Barney2.0

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From the Bible:

(New Testament | 1 Corinthians 8:5 - 6)

5 For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)
6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

(Old Testament | Genesis 1:26)

26 ¶ And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

(Old Testament | Genesis 3:22)

22 ¶ And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:
None of that refers to separate deities as in Mormonism. The term Elohim or god has been used to refer to idols, the devil, and rulers of the world. It doesn’t support the Mormon idea of polytheism. There are many gods, meaning false gods, but only one true living one, 1 Corinthians 8:5-6 is evidence against Mormonism’s polytheism, it doesn’t support your theological viewpoints in any way what so ever.
 
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Being tempted with something only means Jesus was tempted, whether he was inclined into temptation is a confusing statement. I only know he was tempted. I also know that he was not inclined to give in to that temptation. He, at all times upheld his sinless status, so that he clearly could be a man that we can worship and was certainly a worthy sacrifice, having overcome all the world could throw at him, even a cruel and torturous death. He is our Savior and our example. We can be like Jesus.

As you said in post #763, God became man so man could become God. Jesus was the perfect example to show us the way to do this. Thank you.


You say, God can be tempted, but not externally or internally? What other kind of temptation is there, parallel, or vertical temptation? You will need to explain further.


God made him..... Jesus was made (created)?



You think Jesus would have sinned, unless he was gifted to not sin from God?

When you say, imagine if you were face to face with the origin of sin and death, are you saying what if you were face to face with satan? You think, unless Jesus was again gifted to not sin, that he would have lost to satan's temptations?


The holy word of God says that he was, but yet also pronounces Jesus to be God, worthy of sacrifice. I think you need to study this out a little more. You are saying things that I have never heard a Christian say.
God was tempted many times in the Old Testament, Satan tempted God to allow him to test Job. Does that mean God could sin, but chose not to? You don’t seem to be addressing what I’m saying, f Jesus could have sinful inclinations then he’s not free from the effects and consequences of Adams sin and thus is sinful and isn’t a worthy sacrifice. No that which is sinful isn’t a worthy sacrifice and if Jesus could feel sin in his heart then that still means he sinned in thought thus he isn’t divine nor is he free from sin which means his sacrifice is worthless.

God became a man so that man could be made God. Wait to go taking my post out of context, Jesus became perfect man free from temptation, he didn’t become man in his corrupted state. He became pure man made in the image of God as man previously was. Meaning he didn’t suffer sin. Which is why he is called he second Adam, he is what Adam should have been.

Jesus being tempted refers to the same way God is tempted in the Old Testament, there is no difference and we know God doesn’t feel sin in his essence as sin is foreign to God and vice versa.

Jesus wasn’t created, but as the Gospel of says he took on flesh and dwelt among us, his flesh and humanity is created. So God the Father made the Son into Jesus to be our Christ and savior. As the Word became flesh or the Word was made flesh.

Jesus didn’t have a gifted ability that made him stop sinning, he in his nature is God thus sin is foreign to him and he feels no sin as sin is not of God nor is God of sin. Jesus wasn’t gifted not to sin he in his nature does not know sin.

The Holy Word of God says he was a worthy sacrifice because he knew no sin, not because he knew sin, but chose not to act on it.
 
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So you are saying that Adam 'chose' to know good and evil and it is then that he came under the influence of sin and temptation, in his fallen state?

How does Adams experience, explain how Jesus's humanity was united to his divinity? Please explain.
Yes, Adam only knew sin when he ate of the fruit, being made in the image of God he knew no sin in his original state. So yes Adam chose sin and then got ruled and influenced by sin.

I don’t understand your question very well of how the humanity of Jesus was united to his divinity, please elaborate more on it and be a little more specific.
 
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dzheremi

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In the Coptic Orthodox tradition, there is a part of our midnight praises chanted for Sundays that begins: "Who is likened unto You, O Lord among the gods, You are the true God, the Performer of miracles."

Probably if Mormons heard this, they would say "Aha! It says 'Gods'! See, even your church once believed as we do, but then you were swept up in the apostasy like all the churches were!"

:doh:

It seems that it does not matter how clear the reason for the use of certain language is in expressing Christian theology; what Mormons focus on instead is that the use of such language exists -- i.e., "We found this word of this combination of words", and not what they actually mean in the context in which they are found. It's very much like my experience of arguing the same with Muslims, which I do not believe is coincidental in the slightest (as both groups need for Christianity as it was actually established to be false, or else their subsequent parasitic religions have no reason to exist at all, ever).
 
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Pedra

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God was tempted many times in the Old Testament, Satan tempted God to allow him to test Job. Does that mean God could sin, but chose not to? You don’t seem to be addressing what I’m saying, f Jesus could have sinful inclinations then he’s not free from the effects and consequences of Adams sin and thus is sinful and isn’t a worthy sacrifice. No that which is sinful isn’t a worthy sacrifice and if Jesus could feel sin in his heart then that still means he sinned in thought thus he isn’t divine nor is he free from sin which means his sacrifice is worthless.

God became a man so that man could be made God. Wait to go taking my post out of context, Jesus became perfect man free from temptation, he didn’t become man in his corrupted state. He became pure man made in the image of God as man previously was. Meaning he didn’t suffer sin. Which is why he is called he second Adam, he is what Adam should have been.

Jesus being tempted refers to the same way God is tempted in the Old Testament, there is no difference and we know God doesn’t feel sin in his essence as sin is foreign to God and vice versa.

Jesus wasn’t created, but as the Gospel of says he took on flesh and dwelt among us, his flesh and humanity is created. So God the Father made the Son into Jesus to be our Christ and savior. As the Word became flesh or the Word was made flesh.

Jesus didn’t have a gifted ability that made him stop sinning, he in his nature is God thus sin is foreign to him and he feels no sin as sin is not of God nor is God of sin. Jesus wasn’t gifted not to sin he in his nature does not know sin.

The Holy Word of God says he was a worthy sacrifice because he knew no sin, not because he knew sin, but chose not to act on it.
In the Old Testament scripture it never said that God was tempted by Satan, that is just your interpretation. The Holy LORD God is holy, holy, holy as the angels proclaim. The LORD God is almighty Holy, divine, omnipotent,omnipresent, omniscient, purity, His character is perfectly Righteous & Just. The Creator could Never be tempted by a creature.
Jesus the Son of God left His high estate and was fully God and fully man. The Bible tells us Jesus was tempted in every way we are, yet did not sin.

Hebrews 4:14-15 " 14Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to what we profess. 15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who was tempted in every way that we are, yet without sin.
 
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Barney2.0

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In the Old Testament scripture it never said that God was tempted by Satan, that is just your interpretation. The Holy LORD God is holy, holy, holy as the angels proclaim. The LORD God is almighty Holy, divine, omnipotent,omnipresent, omniscient, purity, His character is perfectly Righteous & Just. The Creator could Never be tempted by a creature.
Jesus the Son of God left His high estate and was fully God and fully man. The Bible tells us Jesus was tempted in every way we are, yet did not sin.

Hebrews 4:14-15 " 14Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to what we profess. 15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who was tempted in every way that we are, yet without sin.

So they quarreled with Moses and said, "Give us water to drink." Moses replied, "Why do you quarrel with me? Why do you put the LORD to the test?"

Exodus 17:2

The Hebrew word for test here which is ”nasah” can be translated as tempt and could mean temptation:

Strong's Hebrew: 5254. נָסָה (nasah) -- to test, try

I’m not sure you know what tempt means according to the Oxford dictionary and its definition:

to attract somebody or make somebody want to do or have something, even if they know it is wrong

Have people or Satan ever attempted to entice God to take a specific course of action, yes that has happened numerous time and we as people still attempt to put God to the test.

I think your confusing the word tempt with the idea of committing sin. Hebrews 4:14-15 doesn’t really say what you want it to say, it says that Jesus was tested in every way we are, yet committed no sin. Yes he was, but does it say he suffered from sin or struggled with it as a result of his temptation?

2 Corinthians 5:21 elaborates on this by saying he knew no sin, unlike us who know sin, Paul also makes a distinction using these terms between Christ and us, by saying that through him we may be made righteous before God which can only happen if he is made in the image of God in which case he feels no sin in his heart, for he that sins in his heart already commits sin:

God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.

So Christ neither committed any sin and is immortal, ever lasting to ever lasting, which means he is immune to sin and it’s effects as a result of his humanity being united to his divinity perfectly.
 
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