Greetings all, in Christ.
It's about time I got back to this. While I'm sure the answers to these questions have been regurgitated dozens of times now on this Forum, let me ask for clear and concise answers now nonetheless: What are the arguments that explain Romans 14:5 and Acts 15:20 in light of the view some Messianics hold that the Gentile believers were being implicitly urged to keep the sabbaths and holy days? (for those who hold to this position).
Referring me to a specific post in a specific thread is acceptable, but again, I am not looking to read a novel. I want concise, straight to the point answers to start with. Additional support with further text proofs are certainly welcome afterwards, but lead with a clear answer to start.
Special thanks to anyone who takes the time to respond in advance.
In Christ,
Hidden
It's about time I got back to this. While I'm sure the answers to these questions have been regurgitated dozens of times now on this Forum, let me ask for clear and concise answers now nonetheless: What are the arguments that explain Romans 14:5 and Acts 15:20 in light of the view some Messianics hold that the Gentile believers were being implicitly urged to keep the sabbaths and holy days? (for those who hold to this position).
Referring me to a specific post in a specific thread is acceptable, but again, I am not looking to read a novel. I want concise, straight to the point answers to start with. Additional support with further text proofs are certainly welcome afterwards, but lead with a clear answer to start.
Special thanks to anyone who takes the time to respond in advance.
In Christ,
Hidden