Last 12 Verses of Mark: Part II

Nazaroo

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On the marginal notes in 1 and 1582 on Mark 16:8 fwd, Ms. Anderson gives more detail:

The Ending of Mark

At Mk 16:8 () is a final decoration, and then (identical with Codex 1):

εν τισι μεν των αντιγραφων. εως
ωδε πληρουται ο ευαγγελιστης.
εως ου και ευσεβιος ο παμφιλου
εκανονισεν. εν πολλοις δε και
ταυτα φερεται

Then follows 16:9-20.(1582 has the relatively rare reading και εν ταις χερσιν οφεις at 16:18, with Cod. 1.)

In the margin at 16:19, the following is written in a tapering triangular shape:

ειρηναιος ο των
αποστολων πλη
σιον εν τωι προς
τας αιρεσεις τρι
τωι λογωι. τουτο
ανηνεγκεν
το ρητον.
ως μαρκω
ειρημε
ν
ο
ν

The [additional] marginal note of 1582 is not found in Codex 1.

- Anderson, The Textual Tradition of the Gospels:
Family 1 in Matthew, (Brill, 2004) p.68
 
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Nazaroo

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Turns out the last 12 verses of Mark fit quite well in the space left by Codex vaticanus. Mr.Scrivener has carefully prepared a photo showing how:

MarkEnding4.jpg



You can read his discussion about it here:

NT Textual Criticism: Codex B Borders (cont.) & Mark's Ending

peace
Nazaroo
 
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Nazaroo

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Here's the latest on Mark's Ending by James Snapp Jr.:

An Open Letter to John MacArthur, the Staff of Grace To You, and the elders of
Grace Community Church.

In 2007, at Pulpit Magazine » Blog Archive » A Short KJV Detour (Part 3) ,
there is a statement at the Pulpit Magazine blog stating the following about
Mark 16:9-20.

"Mark 16:9-20 has evoked no end of critical discussion. Many believe that this
questionable passage should be deleted since it is used to back up the claims of
charismatics; others, Grace Church included, believe that it should be
considered part of the authorative text and rightly interpreted."

This is, it seems, related to a booklet called "The Biblical Position on The KJV
Controversy," which is online at, among other places,
The Biblical Position on the KJV Controversy[bless and do not curse] --[bless and do not curse] John MacArthur , where it is noted that
copies of it can be obtained by writing to Grace Community Church in Sun Valley,
California. That is where John MacArthur preaches, and at its preface and its
conclusion, there is the name John MacArthur, as if the author was John
MacArthur. In that presentation, I find the following statement:

"You mention Mark 16. That text has evoked no end of critical discussion. For
many, they delete it because it simply solves some of their theological hangups.
I know we differ on the charismatic issue and quite honestly, it would be easy
for me to hide behind the cloak of textual criticism and conclude that because
it's not in some of the manuscripts, that therefore, verses 9 ff. are to be
deleted. The evidence is not conclusive for either side, but a good case can be
made for the inclusion of Mark 16:9-20 and I myself believe that it should be
included and then rightly interpreted."

In the 1997 edition of the MacArthur Study Bible, a note about Mark 16:9�20 has
a slightly different nuance but remains rather diplomatic on the subject. The
note briefly mentioned that "While the majority of Gr. manuscripts contain these
verses, the earliest and most reliable do not," and echoed some of Metzger's
observations about the non-transition between 16:8 and 16:9. But it closed by
saying the following: "In spite of all these considerations of the likely
unreliability of this section, it is possible to be wrong on the issue, and
thus, it is good to consider the meaning of this passage and leave it in the
text, just as with John 7:53�8:11."
The admission by Dr. MacArthur that many people delete Mark 16:9-20 in order to
solve some theological difficulty was interesting. But what seems more
interesting to me is the comparison between the statement in the letter, the
similar statement in "The Biblical Position on The KJV Controversy," the note in
the MacArthur Study Bible, and John MacArthur's recent sermon about the ending
of the Gospel of Mark.

On June 5, 2001, in a sermon, a transcript of which is at
The Fitting End to Mark’s Gospel (6/5/2011) , the following about Mark 16:9-20:
"Frankly, I think it's a bad ending."

Now, it's not easy to interact with a sermon the way one would interact with,
say, an academic article. The argumentation is different, there are direct
theological principles in play, and one simply cannot write honestly about a
sermon and pretend to be a Vulcan. I insist on the right to express a little
emotion in the following response to Dr. MacArthur's sermon. I have tried to
hold him accountable, and at the same time I have tried to discern what led him
to say the things that he said. I am sure that he would be the first to
encourage his congregation and his radio audience to follow the Scriptural
command to test everything. I tested his sermon, and found some things wanting.
Test this response, and consider whether or not Mark 16:9-20 deserves to be
called a "bad ending."

As Dr. MacArthur began, he stated, "I understand the science and the history of
manuscripts and the passing down of Holy Scripture. That is one of the most
important things you learn in seminary."
It's helpful, I suppose, to establish that you know what you are talking about
when you are about to say something that might sound surprising to some of your
listeners. That is why Dr. MacArthur said this; it was not self-advertisement
for its own sake. After hearing this sermon, however, I have serious doubts
about Dr. MacArthur's grasp of New Testament textual criticism.

He said: "Even if you have a New King James Version, there will be a note in
the margin explaining that this is a variant, this is a text that has been added
to Mark."

That's not quite what the NKJV's note says. This is what it says: "Verses 9-20
are bracketed in NU-Text as not original. They are lacking in Codex Sinaiticus
and Codex Vaticanus, although nearly all other manuscripts of Mark contain
them." The note in the NKJV questions the correctness of Sinaiticus and
Vaticanus rather than the legitimacy of the passage. Dr. MacArthur
misrepresented this note in the NKJV and I expect him to clarify and correct
that misrepresentation.

He said: " I can say to you, unequivocally, the Bible you hold in your hand, if
you have formal equivalency, an actual translation, I can assure you, you have
an accurate�an accurate Bible."
The KJV was translated mainly via formal equivalency. So was the NKJV. So was
the World English Bible. Yet they contain Mark 16:9-20 in the text of Mark. So
do several other formally translated Bible versions. Clearly this "unequivocal"
statement is not really so unequivocal. At the end of Mark, and at many other
points, translations rendered via formal equivalency disagree with each other's
meaning due to the use of different base-texts. At those points they cannot
each be equally accurate.

He said: "The Holy Spirit, who is the author of Scripture, inspiring every
writer of Scripture, is also the preserver of Scripture," and "He moved on the
preservers to make sure that the Scripture stayed pure for history."

I do not grant this concept about a connection between the Holy Spirit and
preservation, but since Dr. MacArthur thus advocates it, let's give it some
room. If the Holy Spirit made sure that the Scripture stayed pure for history,
what conclusion should be drawn when it is observed that Mark 16:9-20 is in
every undamaged Greek copy of Mark, except for Vaticanus (with a blank-space
after 16:8) and Sinaiticus (with Mk 16 on a cancel-sheet)? If the Holy Spirit
inspired that proliferation of copies containing Mark 16:9-20, how can Dr.
MacArthur consider it a "bad ending"?

He said: "The printing press didn't show up till around 1500."
Would it just be nit-picking if someone was less than satisfied when someone
else said that Columbus sailed the ocean blue around 1540? No? Then let's
avoid needless ambiguity and say that the printing press was invented in the
mid-1400's.

He said: "We have twenty-five thousand ancient manuscripts of the New
Testament, twenty-five thousand."

By "25,000 manuscripts" he referred to copies in any language. (Shortly later
in the sermon he specified the number of Greek copies: "There are five
thousand, six hundred or so Greek manuscripts and they go way back.") This
"25,000" number includes copies of the Vulgate.

He said: "Such an abundance shows how the Holy Spirit preserved everything."

Let's hear that again. He said, "Such an abundance shows how the Holy Spirit
preserved everything." When Dr. MacArthur saw this great number of manuscripts,
he considered their preservation an act, whether direct or indirect, of the Holy
Spirit. Well, over 99% of those Greek manuscripts include Mark 16:9-20 as part
of the text of Mark. Why doesn't that abundance show how the Holy Spirit
preserved everything?

He said: "Nothing�nothing in ancient literature, even comes close to the mass
of manuscripts that we have on the New Testament. And what they demonstrate is
the uniformity and the consistency."

(I didn't truncate that sentence; that is what the sermon-transcript says.) It
is remarkable that MacArthur is so capable of giving his listeners the
impression that the manuscripts demonstrate uniformity and consistency, while
advocating a reading that is supported by only thirteen-hundredths of one
percent of the Greek manuscripts! To put it another way: Dr. MacArthur, after
emphasizing the importance of the uniformity and consistency of manuscripts,
rejects the reading that is found in over 99% of the undamaged Greek copies of
the Gospel of Mark.

He said: "The two most important ones, one is called, it's a Codex, this is
called a Codex because it is a bound volume, rather than a scroll. The first one
that is very important is called Sinaiticus and it's about 350 and it's the
whole New Testament. The second important one is called Vaticanus, 325 and it's
the whole Bible. By the way, both Sinaiticus and Vaticanus end Mark at verse 8.

Clearly Dr. MacArthur does not know much about these manuscripts. Sinaiticus
includes the OT, in the Septuagint version (including books of the Apocrypha).
(Due to damage, neither one contains the whole Bible.)

And, by the way, Sinaiticus has Mark 16 on a replacement-page with an emphatic
coronis, and, by the way, Vaticanus has a distinct deliberately-placed blank
space after 16:8, indicating the copyist's awareness of verses 9-20. And, by
the way, these two codices were both written at the same scriptorium, at
Caesarea. And, by the way, the bishops of Caesarea (Acacius and Euzoius) in the
mid-300's were Arians. Why were these things not pointed out for the members of
Dr. MacArthur's audience to consider?
 
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Nazaroo

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He said: "We also have eight thousand ancient copies of the New Testament in
Latin called the Vulgate. And the Vulgate dates from 382 to 405."

And each and every one of those copies of the Vulgate NT, if undamaged, contains
Mark 16:9-20 as part of the text of Mark 16.
He said: "We also have 350-plus copies of the Bible in Syriac that goes back to
the 200's."

And exactly one Syriac copy ends distinctly at the end of 16:8. All the others,
unless damaged, contain Mark 16:9-20 as part of the text of Mark 16. (Dr.
MacArthur's statement seems to require that the Pe[bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse]ta goes back to the 200's.
I wonder if he believes that. If not, he should withdraw this statement. If
so, why does he reject its reading at the end of Mark?)

He said: "We have all these ancient manuscripts that when compared all say the
same thing."

That is a false and misleading statement. I shall assume that Dr. MacArthur has
been misinformed. (This nevertheless poses a problem for his earlier statement
to the effect that his seminary training adequately prepared him to speak
authoritative on the subject.) But whatever his intentions, the facts stand:
in a sermon about Mark 16:9-20, he said that Vaticanus and Sinaiticus both end
Mark at 16:8. He then immediately stated that we have 8,000 copies of the
Vulgate New Testament, and 350-plus copies of the Bible in Syriac, and then he
stated that these materials, when compared, "All say the same thing." But the
fact is that at the end of Mark, those 8,000 copies of the Vulgate include
verses 9-20, and so do those 350-plus copies of the Pe[bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse]ta (the standard
Syriac version).

Now, remembering that the focus is on the ending of Mark, consider what he said
next:

He said: "So whether you're reading a Greek manuscript, a Syriac Bible, or
whether you're looking at a Latin Vulgate or whether you're reading a quote from
a church father, it is crystal clear that they all had the same thing."

Dr. MacArthur is about fifteen-hundredths of a percent correct and 99.85%
incorrect. In all the extant Greek, Syriac, and Latin copies put together,
exactly three of them clearly conclude the Gospel of Mark at the end of 16:8,
and thus say the same thing. In the rest of the thousands of unmutilated Greek
copies, hundreds of Syriac copies, and thousands of Latin copies, Mark 16:9-20
is included as part of the text of Mark. (The proportion could be altered if
Armenian copies were added to the equation, but Dr. MacArthur did not do that.)
He said: "They would be reading essentially in their language what you're
reading today in yours because yours is drawn from those ancient manuscripts."

Dr. MacArthur just finished telling us that because your English Bible is drawn
from those thousands of Greek manuscripts, hundreds of Syriac manuscripts, and
thousands of Latin manuscripts, you can trust it. And yet now he has rejected
the reading that is supported by over 99% of the Greek manuscripts, over 99% of
the Syriac copies, and over 99% of the Latin copies.

He said: "With so many accurate manuscripts, you can know with no hesitation
that the Bible you hold in your hand is a true English translation of the
original autographs, as they're called, preserved accurately."

Since he keeps saying it, I will say it again too: the idea that these large
groups of Greek, Syriac, and Latin manuscripts � "so many accurate manuscripts"
� support the reading in Mark 16 that he is trying to defend is sheer fiction.

He said: "Here we are at the end of Mark and we've got this long textual
variance on the end of Mark that we know did not appear in the original
autograph written by Mark."

That is a confident statement, "We know." How do we know? I question whether
Dr. MacArthur has done sufficient research to justify the confidence of this
assertion. Even a novice should know that Sinaiticus contains more than the New
Testament.

Dr. MacArthur then presents several theories about the reason for the abrupt
ending at 16:8; he rejects all of them, initially, as speculations, and then
says, "I think it's just better to stick with the text." That is not
argumentation; that is restatement of a position. The identification of the
text to which to stick is the primary question at hand.

He said: "Others said, "Well, we've got to put an ending on this. We can't...we
just can't leave this." So endings began to appear, short ones, like the little
one at the end, "They promptly reported all these instructions to Peter and his
companions, and after that, Jesus Himself sent out through them from east to
west the sacred and imperishable proclamation of eternal salvation.""

There's one Short Ending. What are the other short endings to which Dr.
MacArthur refers? They are non-existent. Dr. MacArthur should immediately
retract his false and misleading statement in the same venues in which it was
made and disseminated.

He said: "By the way, we have all kinds of manuscript evidence to know that was
added later. I told you the two most important manuscripts, Sinaiticus and
Vaticanus both end at verse 8, as do the other ancient manuscripts."

What other ancient manuscripts?? There are a total of four ancient manuscripts
(in any language) in which Mark ends at the end of 16:8: Vaticanus (325),
Sinaiticus (350), the Sinaitic Syriac (400), and a Sahidic manuscript that is
housed at Barcelona, Spain (c. 425). (These dates are approximations.) Where
is that enormous group of manuscripts that "go way back," to which Dr. MacArthur
referred? Where are Codex Alexandrinus, Codex Bezae, Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus,
and Codex Washingtoniensis, for example? They support the inclusion of Mark
16:9-20.

He said: "Our translations are based on the most ancient Greek manuscripts.
And they don't have that short ending, and they certainly don't have that long
ending, verses 9 through 20."
Not only is it an oversimplification to claim that our translations are based on
the most ancient Greek manuscripts (as if any translation can be based on both
Vaticanus and Sinaiticus at the hundreds of places in the Gospels where their
texts disagree with one another in translation-affecting ways), but it is
fallacious to suggest that a particular reading is better just because it is
written on material that has survived longer than other material. Copies that
were stored (or, in some cases, buried) in Egypt have tended to last longer
there because the climate is friendly to manuscript-preservation. That does not
mean that a tenth-century copy of a second-century text is less accurate than a
fourth-century copy of a third-century text. (Plus, all the major English
translations (I don't think the initial edition of the RSV still counts as a
major version for all practical purposes) have 16:9-20, although the passage is
bracketed in most of the newer ones.)
"In the fourth century, for example, two of the fathers, Eusebius and Jerome,
wrote that almost all Greek manuscripts of the New Testament end at verse 8."

Not exactly. Eusebius of Caesarea, around 325, wrote that someone could say
that almost all copies of Mark ended at the end of v. 8, and that at least the
"accurate copies" did so. But this statement, made less than three decades
after the Diocletian persecution, refers to copies at Caesarea, not copies
throughout the Roman Empire. It is not as if Eusebius, by some miracle, had the
means to conduct a survey of all manuscript-collections everywhere. Plus,
although Eusebius of Caesarea made this statement, he also explained how Mark
16:9 could be harmonized and retained, and apparently expected his correspondent
Marinus to take that course. As for Jerome (whose pertinent composition comes
from the early /fifth/ century), he fully included 16:9-20 in the Vulgate, and
he referred to 16:14 in one of his compositions when describing where the Freer
Logion is located. His statement about Mark 16:9-20 being absent from "almost
all Greek codices" occurs in a composition in which he reproduced, in an
abridged and adjusted form, the same composition that Eusebius had written to
Marinus. Even three of the questions that Marinus asked Eusebius are included
in Jerome's composition, and they occur in the same order. And Jerome, too,
recommends to his correspondent Hedibia that the passage should be retained and
harmonized.

Dr. MacArthur said: "They knew they existed. In the second century, Justin
Martyr and Tatian knew about other endings. Irenaeus, also, Irenaeus is in 150
to 200, he knows about this long ending because he quotes verse 19 from it. They
knew these endings existed."

Now that is chutzpah. Justin Martyr made a strong allusion to Mark 16:9-20 in
chapter 45 of his work First Apology, written no later than 160. Tatian, who
was a student of Justin, incorporated Mark 16:9-20 into a text called the
Diatessaron, around 172; the Diatessaron was designed to be a continuous
narrative in which all four Gospels were combined. And, as Dr. MacArthur says,
Irenaeus, bishop of the city of Lyons in Gaul, explicitly quotes from Mark
16:19, stating that he is quoting from Mark, near the end of his account. It is
altogether SPIN to simply say that Justin, Tatian, and Irenaeus knew these
endings existed. These three prominent writers in the 100's - Justin, Tatian,
and Irenaeus - each writing over a century and a half before Codex Vaticanus and
Codex Sinaiticus were produced in the 300's - used the contents of Mark 16:9-20
as Scripture. They did not merely know about this text. They Used It As
Scripture. It was in their copies of Mark. In addition, there is no evidence
that Justin or Tatian or Irenaeus was acquainted with the Short Ending. Dr.
MacArthur's claim about that is incorrect and I expect him to withdraw it
instead of allowing his listeners to continue to believe something he told them
that is not true.

He said: "They existed early. But even by the fourth century, Eusebius says,
"The Greek manuscripts do not include these endings�the originals."

Eusebius did not say that. This sort of paraphrasing is misleading. Only a
detailed examination of his full statement, and of the setting in which he made
it, can sufficiently reveal the nuances of his statements. Eusebius shows no
awareness at all of the Shorter Ending; I expect that Dr. MacArthur will
speedily withdraw that claim with the same energy with which he declared it.

He said: "The King James and the New King James are based on a medieval text�a
medieval text, based on later texts."

This is the sheet-anchor of desperate textual arguments: when all else fails,
just associate a particular variant with the Textus Receptus, and all the wise
men of academia will applaud its rejection, out of fear of looking like
wild-eyed fundamentalists. The thing is, the inclusion of Mark 16:9-20 is not
just supported by the Textus Receptus. It is supported by the Byzantine Text
(as shown in Codex A) -- that is, by the vast majority of the "abundance" of
Greek copies which Dr. MacArthur glowingly recommended as evidence of the Holy
Spirit's operation earlier in the sermon -- and by the Western Text (as shown in
Codex D), and by the Caesarean Text (as shown in Codices 1 and 1582), and by the
Alexandrian Text (as shown in Codices L, Psi, and Delta). Mark 16:9-20 is
supported by Aphraates (Syria, early 300's), by Ambrose (at Milan, mid-300;s),
by Epiphanius (on Cyprus, late 300's), and by Augustine (in North Africa, early
400's), who cites both Greek and Latin manuscripts in his statements about the
passage, without giving any indication that it is absent in some copies.
 
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Nazaroo

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He said: "Since that time, we have discovered the earlier texts, so all the
later translations, NAS, NAS Update, ESV, NIV, etc., etc., are all based on the
more ancient texts."

What MacArthur calls "the more ancient texts" are primarily the fourth-century
copies Vaticanus and Sinaiticus.

He said: "There are some other endings floating around too, by the way, some
others that you don't need to know about."

Such words mislead the listeners. There is the Shorter Ending, which appears by
itself in one very anomalous Old Latin manuscript, Codex Bobbiensis. In six
Greek manuscripts and in dozens of Ethiopic copies, both the Short Ending and
verses 9-20 are included. In Codex W, 16:9-20 is included, with an
interpolation (the Freer Logion) between verse 14 and verse 15. And there are
copies in which 16:9-20 is accompanied by annotations. That's it. There are
not really "some other endings floating around" besides the Shorter Ending that
do not include verses 9-20. I challenge Dr. MacArthur: either produce these
"other endings" in a timely manner, or else retract -- in public, like the
sermon, not in some obscure footnote -- your claim that these "other endings"
exist.

He said: "So we would say external evidence argues for exclusion, not
inclusion. And that would pretty much cross the board with textual scholars."

The appeal to a scholarly consensus may initially seem to be a difficult one to
face. But how, when facing the fact that over 99.9% of the extant Greek
manuscripts of Mark include verses 9-20, do scholars avoid accepting the
consensus of manuscripts? By appealing to a famous axiom: manuscripts must be
weighed, not counted." (This excellent axiom is, unfortunately, not often
well-explained.) And the same is true of scholars and commentators. How many
commentaries have I read, in which, as the writer wrote about Mark 16:9-20,
phrases appeared which I had already read in Bruce Metzger's A Textual
Commentary on the New Testament? How many of these commentators are complete
parrots when writing about this subject? How many writers who have told their
readers, "Clement of Alexandria and Origen show no knowledge of the existence of
these verses" ever sifted through the writings of Clement and Origen to see if
that was a text-critically significant observation? I have read a lot of
commentaries, and I consider it a fair estimate that the percentage of American
commentators whose research on Mark 16:9-20 involved first-hand investigations
of the evidence is probably less than five percent.

You would think that the scholars who made the ESV are pretty well-informed,
right? And yet in the ESV's footnotes in Mark 16:9, the ESV falsely states that
"a few manuscripts" insert additional material after verse 14. In fact, only
one manuscript (Codex W) does so. This is very easy to check; yet the mistake
was made, and it continues to be disseminated in the ESV.

A misinformed, uninformed, incompletely informed consensus is worthless. Plus,
Dr. MacArthur should know better. He rejects the consensus of scientific
experts who insist that the earth is very old. In his sermons on Second Peter,
he rejects the conclusion of those scholars who insist that Peter did not write
Second Peter. And many more examples could be provided. Don't be eager to
challenge the "scholarly consensus," but don't be afraid to, either, when there
are valid reasons to do so. Dr. MacArthur does it all the time!

Now about what he said about the pertinent internal evidence. He said that the
internal evidence "argues for exclusion." No it does not. It supports the idea
that Mark 16:9-20 is not the ending to the Gospel of Mark that Mark had intended
to write. But it does not support the idea that Mark 16:9-20 was not in the
autograph of the Gospel of Mark. For a passage to be part of the "original
text" of a book of the Bible, what is necessary is that the passage was in the
text at the end of the book's production-stage, when its transmission-stage
began. If we defined the "original text" as the content that came directly from
the primary human author, we would have to reject a lot of Psalms, a lot of
Proverbs, and other passages, such as the fifty-second chapter of Jeremiah.
After all, at the end of Jeremiah 51, the text explicitly says, "The words of
Jeremiah end here," but we have an additional 34 verses after that, in chapter
52 -- even in the ESV and NIV! (In the editions we have today, at least.
Tomorrow, who knows?)

The same Holy Spirit who inspired the production of the book of Psalms, with its
several authors, some who are known and some who are unknown, is capable of
inspiring a colleague of Mark to complete Mark's interrupted and otherwise
unfinished narrative by combining it with another composition which Mark or
Peter had composed as a freestanding text about Jesus' post-resurrection
appearances. There is nothing doctrinally problematic about that. In addition,
that would explain all of the internal evidence that Dr. MacArthur described,
better than his theory that some copyist in the 100's pieced together the
passage.

Why would any such person, attempting to compose an ending for the Gospel of
Mark, begin without a transition from the scene in verse 8? Here is what Dr.
MacArthur said about the lack of a transition from verse 8 to verse 9: it is
"awkward." (That's how Metzger described it, too; what a surprising
coincidence.) And, "It's abrupt, it's a bizarre change, lacks continuity."
Exactly! And it is still a bizarre thing for a writer in the second century.
Just as Dr. MacArthur observes, an author who was trying to continue the story
would stick with the previous scene, rather than jump to the appearance to Mary
Magdalene.

And, just as Dr. MacArthur observes, a person writing an ending to conclude
Mark's account would describe an appearance in Galilee - so why did the author
of verses 9-20 not do that? The answer is not difficult to see: it is because
verses 9-20 were not initially written to conclude the Gospel of Mark. This
does not mean that these verses were not grafted onto an otherwise incomplete
text of the Gospel of Mark when the text was still in its production-stage,
having previously been a freestanding summary of Christ's post-resurrection
appearances. But it eliminates the notion that anyone in the 100's would write
this ending as a conclusion for the Gospel of Mark.

Dr. MacArthur pointed out that there is no need for the description of Mary
Magdalene in verse 9. I agree. A writer in the second century, attempting to
create an ending for the Gospel of Mark, would have no reason to re-introduce
Mary Magdalene in this way.
Dr. MacArthur pointed out that although the angel at the tomb "spoke of Jesus'
promise to appear to His followers in Galilee," the appearances in verses 9-20
occur in Jerusalem. That is yet another reason why a copyist who was aware of
the contents of Matthew, Luke, and John would not compose these twelve verses as
an ending for the Gospel of Mark. He would instead use the material in John 21,
where there is just the sort of ending�in Galilee, prominently featuring Peter's
restoration�that would be appropriate to conclude Mark's account after 16:8.

Dr. MacArthur mentioned that "There are eighteen words here that are never used
anywhere by Mark." Considering that in another 12-verse section of the Gospel
of Mark (15:40-16:4), there are twenty-two words that are never used anywhere by
Mark, that is not really very persuasive at all.

Dr. MacArthur mentioned that "The structure is very different from the familiar
structure of Mark's writing." Not really. Mark does not have one and only one
way of writing; in chapter one he is rather concise; in chapter nine he is
relatively verbose. In addition, if there is any claim to be made about
structure, it should be that the structure of the abrupt ending�the ending that
Dr. MacArthur liked�is different from anything else in Mark. The final phrase,
with the Greek word "gar," is different from the other phrases in which Mark
uses the word "gar." And elsewhere in Mark, when a non-eschatological
prediction is made, Mark describes its fulfillment explicitly. Yet this is not
done regarding the prediction in 14:28 (and 16:7). If there are internal
obstacles with the idea that Mark wrote 16:9-20 as a freestanding text before an
inspired colleague of Mark added it to the otherwise unfinished autograph, the
internal obstacles with the notion that Mark foreshadowed a post-resurrection
appearance and then deliberately stopped writing at the end of 16:8 are
enormously worse.

There are a few more claims that Dr. MacArthur made about the internal evidence,
and I do not grant any of them; not a single one is valid. He objected, for
example, that "There's no reference to Peter here, although Peter was mentioned
in verse 7." Well, there is no reference to Peter in the abrupt ending either.
And he objects that the theme of gospel proclamation doesn't exist anywhere in
Mark. A quick consultation of Mark 1:38, 6:12, 13:10, and 14:8 fully answers
that objection.

Dr. MacArthur even objects to the signs described in 16:17-18: "In no account,
post-resurrection of Jesus, is there any discussion of signs like picking up
serpents, speaking with tongues, casting out demons, drinking poison, laying
hands on the sick. So both internally and externally, this is foreign to Mark."
Notice the reasoning that is utilized there: these verses are unique, and their
uniqueness is treated as evidence that they are "foreign to Mark." The passage
is placed in a lose-lose scenario via such reasoning: whatever it contains that
is unique is categorized as "foreign to Mark." But whatever the passage
contains that is not unique is categorized as "borrowed from an earlier source."
That's not even-handed analysis; that's molding the evidence.

In the interest of brevity I move on to address Dr. MacArthur's claim that Mark
16:9-20 is a patchwork, a pastiche, cobbled together from the other Gospels. He
puts it like this: "We don't know who it came from, but I know where. It came
from�some people got together and they started picking things out of the other
gospels and out of some of the other New Testament books and putting them
together." That is speculation, whether Dr. MacArthur prefaces it with the
words "I know" or not.

He stated: "Verse 9 is taken right out of Luke 8:1 to 3." As if the only way a
companion of Peter could have known that Jesus had cast out seven demons from
Mary Magdalene was by reading the Gospel of Luke. In addition, Luke 8:2 uses
the Greek term EXELHLUQEI, while Mk. 16:9 uses EKBEBLHKEI. Dr. MacArthur's
listeners probably got the impression that there is a verbatim match here, but
that is not the case.
 
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He stated: "Verse 10 is taken from John 20, verse 18." Mark 16:10 says that
Mary Magdalene went and told those who had been with Him, as they mourned and
wept. John 20:18 says that Mary Magdalene came and told the disciples that she
had seen the Lord, and that He had spoken these things to her. John 20:18 does
not say that the disciples were mourning and weeping. Nor does it say, as Mark
16:11 says, that they did not believe her. The same event is being related, but
there is no evidence of dependence of one account upon the other.

He stated, "Verse 12 is taken from Luke 24:13 to 32, the road to Emmaus
account." Again, the same event is being related, but how does Dr. MacArthur
"know" that Mark 16:12 is based on Luke's much longer account of the encounter
on the road to Emmaus?

He stated, "Verse 13 is taken from Luke 24." No it's not. Mark 16:13 states
that the main group of disciples did not believe the two travelers, but nowhere
in Luke 24 does Luke state that the main group of disciples did not believe the
two travelers. The way Luke presents the events, there is no indication that
the main group gets the chance to express disbelief in the report of the two
travelers, because as they "told about the things that had happened on the
road," in Luke 24:35, Jesus appeared in the midst, in Luke 24:36. No one
depending upon Luke's narrative would state that the main group disbelieved the
two travelers, and that Jesus appeared later and rebuked the eleven. In Luke,
it's all reported as one scene, and Luke does not mention any such rebuke.

He stated: "Verse 14 is taken from Luke 24:36 to 38." Seriously? Mark 16:14
says that Jesus appeared to the eleven "Later," whereas in Luke 24:36-38, it is,
as I just said, all one scene. And Mark 16:14 says that Jesus rebuked the
eleven because of their failure to believe those who had seen Him after He had
risen, but in Luke 24:36-38, there is no such rebuke, just peaceful greetings
and mild questions, and there is no mention of those who had already seen Him at
all.

He stated, "Verse 15 is taken from Matthew 28:19, you know that. `Go into all
the world and preach the gospel to all creation.' That's right out of Matthew
28:19." False. Matthew 28:19 says, "Go therefore, and make disciples of all
the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the
Holy Spirit." Here are the similarities: in Mark 16:15, Jesus commands His
disciples to go and preach to all creation. In Matthew 28:19, Jesus commands
His disciples to go and teach all nations. Now here are the differences: the
word "creation" is not the same as the word "nations." The word "preach" is not
the same as the word "teach." The words "the gospel" are not the same as the
lack of these words. And the triune baptismal formula in Mt. 28:19 is absent
from Mk. 16:15. These differences speak for themselves. Mark 16:15 is
obviously not "right out of Matthew 28:19."

Dr. MacArthur stated, "In the book of Acts, we know that Paul was saved from a
snake bite at the end of the book of Acts, twenty-eighth chapter verses 3 to 6."
Does he really think that Paul's encounter with the viper (ECIDNA in Acts 28:3,
but OFEIS in Mk. 16:18) would inspire a second-century copyist to put something
about snakes in a list of made-up prophecies?? Paul had *raised the dead* in
Acts 20; likewise Peter in Acts 9. And yet somehow, a viper attacking Paul (not
Paul deliberately picking up a snake) is supposed to provoke a second-century
copyist to put words into Jesus' mouth so as to prophesy that believers will
take up serpents in their hands??

Dr. MacArthur stated, "We don't have any illustration of drinking poison, we
don't know how that got thrown in. That doesn't appear anywhere else in
Scripture." There's the lose-lose scenario under construction.

He continued: "We've got a patchwork collage that some early folks felt needed
to be thrown together."

Mark 16:9-20 is a summary, but it is not a "patchwork collage." No writer who
was aware of the contents of Matthew 28 -- in which the women report to the
disciples with the angel's instructions to go to Galilee, and, the next thing
you know, the disciples go to Galilee -- would report that the disciples did not
believe the women. No one depending upon the contents of Luke 24 -- in which
Jesus appears to the main group of disciples as the two travelers are still
telling about their encounter -- would state that the eleven did not believe the
two travelers, and that Jesus appeared to the eleven "Later." No one aware of
the rich contents of John 21, in which Jesus appears in Galilee, and in which
Peter is specially restored, would carefully avoid using it, when it is just
what the doctor ordered.

Then he states, "Frankly, I think it's a bad ending. We have all that
information."

No; we do /not/ have all the information in Mark 16:9-20 from other sources.
Only Mark 16:10 tells us that Mary Magdalene went to people who were mourning
and weeping. Only 16:13 tells us that the main group of disciples did not
believe the two travelers. Only 16:14 explicitly says that the disciples were
sitting at table when Jesus appeared to them. Only 16:16 connects belief and
baptism so closely with salvation; this statement is not in the other
post-resurrection accounts. And as Dr. MacArthur acknowledges, the statement
about signs is, as a statement of Jesus, unique.

In addition to these considerations, I observe that we have, in Matthew and
Luke, almost all of the information in the book of Mark. Should I borrow Dr.
MacArthur's gauge of quality, and conclude that the Gospel of Mark is a bad
book, for the same reason he proposes that Mark 16:9-20 is a bad ending?

Now about the abrupt ending. Dr. MacArthur assumes the correctness of his
rejection of Mark 16:9-20 when he states, "Why does he end the way he ends?"
That is not case-building; that is case-assuming.
He continues: "I think it's just the way he wrote. He started very
abruptly...yeah, he did. He skipped...well he skipped everything like John did,
up to the baptism. He starts at the baptism. What about the Elizabeth/Zacharias
promise of John the Baptist? Annunciation, the angels, the virgin birth,
Bethlehem, where's that? Not here."

There is a very good reason why the Gospel of Mark starts where it does. The
Gospel of Mark is closely based on Peter's recollections - the stories about
Jesus that Peter delivered in Rome. This explains why most of the events in the
book occur with Peter on the narrative stage. It explains why Mark does not
have a Nativity story. But it does not explain why Vaticanus and Sinaiticus do
not include the post-resurrection appearances of Jesus; according to Acts
2:31-33, and other passages, Jesus' visible appearance after His resurrection,
and His ascension, were part of Peter's proclamations about Jesus, and would
thus be extremely likely to be expected in a collection of Peter's remembrances.

MacArthur: "I like the kind of people who make a point, and they're done. I
think he made his."

And what is the point of writing so that the last recorded words of Jesus are
"My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" and so that His prophecy of a
meeting in Galilee is not fulfilled? What is the point of writing so that
Peter, when last seen, has denied Christ three times and is in tears? What is
the point of writing so as to give the impression -- unless a reader would
happen to know otherwise -- that the women who received the angel's instructions
never obeyed them, and the disciples and Peter thus never got the news? (But
then, how did Mark find out about it?) And what is the point of writing so as
to support those who insist that one can believe the basics of the good news
without believing in the bodily resurrection of Christ? Can it be all that
crucial, they propose, if Mark never described it, but only alluded to it as
something that happened off the narrative stage? Are these the points that Dr.
MacArthur thinks that Mark made via the abrupt ending? I propose something
else: the stoppage at the end of Mark 16:8 looks like an interruption because
it was one. The production of the text did not conclude there, but it was
temporarily interrupted.

Dr. MacArthur did a marvelous job of treating the abrupt ending as if it fits
right in with the theme of wonder in the Gospel of Mark. But the narratives
that he uses as evidence are simply not what he treats them as. They describe
things that Jesus did or said. They describe things that Mark describes in the
line of sight of the reader's imagination, so to speak; Jesus acts on the
narrative stage in these episodes. They are mainly records about Jesus doing
things, and the reactions of the people who saw Jesus doing those things. They
are not records about reports of Jesus doing something; He is there on the
scene. But in Mark 16:1-8, Jesus does not make an appearance.

In addition, Dr. MacArthur is simply misusing some of the passages that he
cited; their context was ignored: Dr. MacArthur is proposing that Mark
deliberately ended his account on a note of fear, but in 10:24, the episode is
not ending when the disciples marvel (EQAMBOUNTO, not EFOBOUNTO�since Dr.
MacArthur knows Greek, he must know that this is not really the parallel in
Greek that it looks like in English.) Jesus immediately proceeds to deal with
the disciples' astonishment. In 10:32, the disciples are fearful, but the
episode does not end with fear; Jesus responds to their fear by again telling
them what was about to happen to Him. And regarding Mark 11:18, it does not
support Dr. MacArthur's case at all to notice that the scribes and chief priests
were afraid of Him (EFOBOUNTO GAR AUTON, as if this somehow relates to the kind
of fear that the women were feeling in 16:8 (which ends with EFOBOUNTO GAR).

Dr. MacArthur asked: "What else do you expect Mark to say to finish then that
the women fled trembling, and astonishment gripped them and they said nothing to
anyone for they were afraid?" That is a rather subjective question, but anyone
in first-century Rome who was the least bit familiar with Peter's preaching
would expect Mark to say how Jesus responded to the women's fear. I don't think
the question has any persuasive value (since it is really about readers'
expectations rather than about the text) but it seems to me that the initial
readership in Rome would expect something like what we see at the end of
Matthew: Jesus appears to the women, calms them down, sends them off to the
disciples, and then meets the disciples in Galilee and commissions them to
spread the good news.

I would expect to see Mark describe how Jesus responded to fear (and to
amazement, which are not the same thing; I do not know why Dr. MacArthur treats
the two terms interchangeably). To the same extent that Mark describes fear and
amazement in his account, Mark also describes Jesus' response to fear and
amazement. Mark does not present Jesus doing nothing to deal with His
followers' panic and fear in 1:1-16:7, and it would have been inconsistent of
Mark to deliberately start doing that in 16:8.

Now, despite the length of this letter, I have not dealt with every facet of
this textual issue. I do not aspire to settle it all in one day. But I hope
that it will be clear that there are several serious flaws in some of the
statements that Dr. MacArthur made in his sermon; several of his claims should
be retracted, and the flaws in this sermon are serious enough to justify a fresh
reconsideration of the subject by him and by those who have heard that sermon.
This matter should be urgently addressed by Dr. MacArthur and the elders of
Grace Community Church.

Yours in Christ,

James Snapp, Jr.
Minister, Curtisville Christian church
Indiana
 
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