Justification?

Clare73 · Feb 7, 2021

Clare73 said:
In the NT usage, there is no difference between justification and righteousness, justification is righteousness = "not guilty," in right relationship with God through faith and trust in the person and work of Jesus Christ for the remission of one's sin, not based on any good works.

It should also be noted that in the NT sanctification is righteousness--growth in separation from sin (pluck it out, cut it off) and obedience to God, which involves works.

When the word "righteousness" is used, the context, in light of the whole NT, will show which one Paul is using.

bling said:
Paul emphasizes the idea you could not stand justified before God with the Old Law. You could be right or righteous before the Lord by doing right before the Lord.

Right, righteous = guiltless, and that is based on law-keeping (the Law), which no one can do so as never to incur any guilt; therefore,
"no one is righteous, not even one," (Ro 3:10), for
"God has bound all men over to disobedience" (Ro 11:32), and
the whole world is a prisoner of sin" (Gal 3:22).

To stand justified before the Lord you would not only have to be doing right, but also have all your past wrongs resolved. To get your past wrongs resolved takes more than just having them forgiven by God. You could prostrate yourself before God asking for forgiveness and be forgive and be in a just position before God, your justified position before the Lord is on the floor face down. Paul is talking about us standing before God justified and more then just righteous.

According to the revelation Paul received from Jesus Christ personally, in the third heaven,
where he heard things man is not permitted to tell (2Co 12:1-5),
the penalty for our sin must be paid,
which Jesus has done on the cross, and
to all those who believe and trust in Jesus for the remission of their sin, God applies Jesus' payment to their sin, whereby
God the Judge declares them "not guilty,"
which places them in right standing before, as well as a right relationship with God, which is justification.

The word "justification" in the Greek means to be declared "not guilty, fine paid."
"Right, righteous" means to be "not guilty" before the Law on any count.
Righteousness and justification are the same thing in the NT.

Clare73 · Feb 7, 2021

bling said:
Did God write that dictionary?

No, God chose that dictionary.

Words have meanings, and God used the words of the language (Greek) whose definitions are in that dictionary.

Ephfourfive · Feb 7, 2021

Danthemailman said:
When it comes to repentance unto salvation (Acts 3:19; Acts 11:18) belief/faith is implied and when it comes to saving belief/faith repentance is implied because they are two sides to the same coin. Not so with baptism. You can repent and believe the gospel but not yet be water baptized.

In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.

*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).

In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.

So the only logical conclusion *when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture* is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*

Ezekiel 36:25 says, "I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you will be clean; I will cleanse you from all your impurities" (also see Numbers 19:17-19; Psalm 51:2,7). Physical water represents or signifies spiritual purification, but it does not cause it. In John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke concerning the Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the source of living water and spiritual cleansing. Also see John 4:10,14. The word "water" is used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26)

Baptismal regeneration is a false doctrine that adds works to the gospel.

False and you are obviously Roman Catholic. Been there, done that prior to my conversion several years ago.

The new covenant is certainly a better covenant on better promises.

Water baptism is an ordinance, not a sacrament.

Have you even considered "living water" in John 4:10, 14; 7:37-39? Again, in John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke concerning the Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the source of living water and spiritual cleansing. If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again.

Also "water" is used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26) When we are born again, the Holy Spirit begets new life, divine life, so that we are said to become "partakers of the divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4) The new birth is brought to pass through "incorruptible seed, by the word of God, which lives and abides forever" (I Peter 1:23), but the Holy Spirit is the Agent who accomplishes the miracle of regeneration.
*So to automatically read "baptism" into John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted.

In regards to water baptism in John 3:22, Jesus' conversation with Nicodemus is over with and He has moved on. John 3:22 - After these things Jesus and His disciples came into the land of Judea, and there He was spending time with them and baptizing. So water baptism does not fit the context of John 3:5.

(though Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples)
In John 4:10, Jesus said, "If you knew the gift of God, and who it is who says to you, 'Give Me a drink,' you would have asked Him, and He would have given you living water." In John 4:14, Jesus said, "but whoever drinks of the water that I shall give him will never thirst. But the water that I shall give him will become in him a fountain of water springing up into everlasting life. *Jesus connects this living water here with everlasting life. *Living water is not water baptism. In 1 Corinthians 12:13, we also read - ..drink into one Spirit. Water baptism is the picture or symbol of the new birth, but not the means of securing it.

False and heretical doctrine. Born again means "born from above."

Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved (general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely necessary for salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief and not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. *NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned." So what happened to baptism in John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26? and no baptism is not implied.

There have been many people over the years in various false religions and cults who have a spurious faith yet have gone on to receive water baptism. If someone truly rejects faith and does not even believe in the existence of Christ, then they would not bother getting water baptized. If baptism is a second requirement then why is it not mentioned in so many passages of scripture in connection with obtaining salvation? (John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 11:17; 13:39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:5-6; 5:1; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8,9; 2 Timothy 3:15; 1 John 5:13 etc..). Gonna stick with the "it's assumed" argument? That may be the only desperate attempt to get around the truth here.

In baptism we die with Christ not faith alone!
And none of your verses every imply “faith alone” faith yes faith and baptism yes

If anyone says you are justified by “faith alone” let him be anathema

Danthemailman · Feb 7, 2021

Ephfourfive said:
In baptism we die with Christ not faith alone!
And none of your verses every imply “faith alone” faith yes faith and baptism yes

If anyone says you are justified by “faith alone” let him be anathema

Dying with Christ and rising to new life is signified, but not procured in the waters of baptism. A symbol is not the reality, but the picture of the reality. Man is justified by faith (rightly understood) in Christ alone. (Romans 5:1) You can believe God’s word or whatever your church teaches you. The choice is your’s. As for me my faith trusts in Christ alone for salvation.

Clare73 · Feb 7, 2021

Ephfourfive said:
In baptism we die with Christ not faith alone!
And none of your verses every imply “faith alone” faith yes faith and baptism yes

If anyone says you are justified by “faith alone” let him be anathema

You're writing Scripture now, as in Gal 1:9?

For Paul, there are only two considerations:

1) faith + works, and
2) faith apart from works, which is "faith alone."

Ac 13:38 (Paul) - Through him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses.

Ro 1:17 - For in the gospel a righteousness from God is revealed, a righteousness that is by faith from first to last, just as it is written: 'The righteous will live by faith' " (Hab 2:4)

Ro 3:21-22 - But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known. . .This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ.

Ro 3:28 - We maintain that a man is justified (declared righteous) by faith apart from observing the law.

Ro 4:5 - However, to the man who does not work, but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness.

Ro 6:14 - you are not under law, but under grace.

Gal 2:16 - know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ.

Gal 3:10 - All you rely on observing the law are under a curse.

Gal 3:11-12 - Clearly no one is justified before God by the law, because 'The righteous will live by faith,' and the law is not based on faith. On the contrary, the man who does these things will live by them." (Lev 18:5)

Eph 2:9 - you have been saved, through faith. . .not by works, so that no one can boast.

Ephfourfive · Feb 7, 2021

Danthemailman said:
Dying with Christ and rising to new life is signified, but not procured in the waters of baptism. A symbol is not the reality, but the picture of the reality. Man is justified by faith (rightly understood) in Christ alone. (Romans 5:1) You can believe God’s word or whatever your church teaches you. The choice is your’s. As for me my faith trusts in Christ alone for salvation.

22 But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life.
freed from sun by faith and baptism
Faith and baptism chapters go together
Never by faith alone

Ephfourfive · Feb 7, 2021

Clare73 said:
You're writing Scripture now, as in Gal 1:9?

For Paul, there are only two considerations:

1) faith + works, and
2) faith apart from works, which is "faith alone."

Ac 13:38 (Paul) - Through him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses.

Ro 1:17 - For in the gospel a righteousness from God is revealed, a righteousness that is by faith from first to last, just as it is written: 'The righteous will live by faith' " (Hab 2:4)

Ro 3:21-22 - But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known. . .This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ.

Ro 3:28 - We maintain that a man is justified (declared righteous) by faith apart from observing the law.

Ro 4:5 - However, to the man who does not work, but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness.

Ro 6:14 - you are not under law, but under grace.

Gal 2:16 - know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ.

Gal 3:10 - All you rely on observing the law are under a curse.

Gal 3:11-12 - Clearly no one is justified before God by the law, because 'The righteous will live by faith,' and the law is not based on faith. On the contrary, the man who does these things will live by them." (Lev 18:5)

Eph 2:9 - you have been saved, through faith. . .not by works, so that no one can boast.

Never teaches faith alone!
Mk 16:16
1 cor 13:2 all faith without charity avails nothing

Baptismal regeneration
New creation in Christ
Born again by water AND the spirit

Clare73 · Feb 7, 2021

Clare73 said:
For Paul, there are only two considerations:

1) faith + works, and
2) faith apart from works, which is "faith alone."

Ac 13:38 (Paul) - Through him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses.

Ro 1:17 - For in the gospel a righteousness from God is revealed, a righteousness that is by faith from first to last, just as it is written: 'The righteous will live by faith' " (Hab 2:4)

Ro 3:21-22 - But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known. . .This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ.

Ro 3:28 - We maintain that a man is justified (declared righteous) by faith apart from observing the law.

Ro 4:5 - However, to the man who does not work, but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness.

Ro 6:14 - you are not under law, but under grace.

Gal 2:16 - know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ.

Gal 3:10 - All you rely on observing the law are under a curse.

Gal 3:11-12 - Clearly no one is justified before God by the law, because 'The righteous will live by faith,' and the law is not based on faith. On the contrary, the man who does these things will live by them." (Lev 18:5)

Eph 2:9 - you have been saved, through faith. . .not by works, so that no one can boast.

Ephfourfive said:
Never teaches faith alone!
Mk 16:16
1 cor 13:2 all faith without charity avails nothing

Baptismal regeneration
New creation in Christ
Born again by water AND the spirit

You didn't address Paul's teaching above, which he received from Jesus Christ personally, in the third heaven (2Co 12:1-5).

Danthemailman · Feb 7, 2021

Ephfourfive said:
22 But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life.
freed from sun by faith and baptism
Faith and baptism chapters go together
Never by faith alone

There is no mention of baptism in Romans 6:22. In context, we see there is a contrast between servants/slaves. There are only two kinds of servants/slaves in this world, in the spiritual sense; servants/slaves of sin unto death, or servants/slaves of obedience unto righteousness.

When we place our faith exclusively in Jesus Christ for salvation (faith alone) believe the gospel by trusting in His finished work of redemption as the all sufficient means of our salvation, we then become "servants of obedience unto righteousness."

Being slaves of sin is put in the past tense. Paul goes on in Romans 6:18 - "You have been set free from sin and have become slaves to righteousness."

Notice in Romans 10:10 - For with the heart one believes unto righteousness..

Notice in Romans 4:5 - But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith (not water baptism or other works) is accounted for righteousness.

Brightfame52 · Feb 7, 2021

bling said:
Right.

okay fine with me

Brightfame52 · Feb 7, 2021

Danthemailman said:
Christ's blood is the all sufficient means of our salvation (Romans 5:9) and faith in Christ for salvation is the instrumental means by which we obtain justification. (Romans 5:1) Christ's finished work of redemption is sufficient and complete to save believers. No supplements needed. (Romans 3:24-28) Choosing to place our faith (belief, trust, reliance) in Jesus Christ alone for salvation does not equate to justification or salvation by works.

You believe different from me. I believe Christs blood actually Justifies them He died for Rom 5:9 and then God will give the Justified one the Gift of Faith to know it Rom 5:1

fhansen · Feb 8, 2021

Baptism was taught and modeled by Jesus. The reason the ancient church in the east and west, and many Protestants as well, insist on its importance in justification is simply because Jesus modeled it, and then commanded it along with faith in Him. The practice didn’t arise arbitrarily or in a vacuum.

Baptism is known as “the sacrament of faith”, because it’s the first, formal, public profession of faith and obedience of Gods will. By it the believer physically acts out and experiences a spiritual reality, the change or transformation by death rising to new life, and cleansing of sin.
“He saved us, not because of righteous things we had done, but because of his mercy. He saved us through the washing of rebirth and renewal by the Holy Spirit Titus 3:5

Clare73 · Feb 8, 2021

fhansen said:
Baptism was taught and modeled by Jesus. The reason the ancient church in the east and west, and many Protestants as well, insist on its importance in justification is simply because Jesus modeled it, and then commanded it along with faith in Him. The practice didn’t arise arbitrarily or in a vacuum.

Baptism is known as “the sacrament of faith”, because it’s the first, formal, public profession of faith and obedience of Gods will. By it the believer physically acts out and experiences a spiritual reality, the change or transformation by death rising to new life, and cleansing of sin.
“He saved us, not because of righteous things we had done, but because of his mercy. He saved us through the washing of rebirth and renewal by the Holy Spirit Titus 3:5

I think it corresponds to circumcision (Col 2:11-12)--which was likewise required--as a sign to the ministering spirits (Heb 1:14),
the angels (1Co 11:10; Eph 3:10; 1Ti 5:21) that one is in the New Covenant people of God.

Ephfourfive · Feb 8, 2021

Clare73 said:
You didn't address Paul's teaching above, which he received from Jesus Christ personally, in the third heaven (2Co 12:1-5).

Apart from the mosaic law yes of course but never faith alone apart from the church and the sacraments instituted by Christ

Three things are eternal (and therefore inseparable) faith, hope, & charity, and the greatest of these is charity! 1 cor 13
Not faith alone
Or outside the church

There is only one true church founded by Christ on Peter and the apostles and their successors is the new covenant body of Christ! Matt 1:18 One fold
Jn 10:16 the household of faith! Gal 6:10

Clare73 · Feb 8, 2021

Ephfourfive said:
Apart from the mosaic law yes of course

No, in the context of Ro 1:18-3:20, where most of those Scriptures (post #85) are located, works are not just the Mosaic law.
Works are performance, whether according to the Mosaic Law, by which God judged the Jews unrighteous (2:1-3:8), or
according to conscience, by which God judged the Gentiles to be unrighteous (1:18-32),
and thereby declared all mankind unrighteous,--"no one is righteous, not even one" (Ro 3:10, 23, 5:12, 18) all are locked-up in sin (Ro 3:9, 11:32; Gal 3:22).

All law-keeping is excluded from having anything to do with the righteousness of justification; i.e., being declared by God to be "not guilty,"
which saves you from God's wrath on sin at the Judgment (Ro 5:9; 1Th 1:10).

Now, in light of Ro 1:18-3:20, go back (post #85) and review again what Paul reveals from the third heaven (2Co 12:1-5)
regarding works and the righteousness of justification; i.e., all works are excluded.

]but never faith alone apart from the church and the sacraments instituted by Christ
Three things are eternal (and therefore inseparable) faith, hope, & charity, and the greatest of these is charity! 1 cor 13
Not faith alone
Or outside the church
There is only one true church founded by Christ on Peter and the apostles and their successors is the new covenant body of Christ! Matt 1:18 One fold
Jn 10:16 the household of faith! Gal 6:10

Salvation is the Lord's!" (Rev 7:10), and his alone (Rev 12:10, 19:1; Ps 37:39, 62:1; Isa 43:11; Hos 13:4).

The issue, in the NT emphasis and importance of separating works from justification (salvation), is so that the redeemed have a
full understanding and appreciation of the sheer magnitude of their blessing from the goodness of God in their redemption. . .and at
so great a price to him, a salvation that is all of God and nothing (nada, zero, zip) of man, for "Salvation is the Lord's!" (Rev 7:10),
so that no one can boast (Eph 2:9; 1Co 1:29), they can only marvel in gratitude and praise of the glorious and infinite GOODNESS of God!

That is why Paul is so insistent on it (which importance was revealed to him by Jesus in the third heaven, 2Co 12:1-5)--for the benefit of the believer's apprehension of the magnitude of the GOODNESS of God.

Butterball1 · Feb 8, 2021

Clare73 said:
First of all , this is not an understanding peculiar to me, it is the understanding of the Reformation. Now to address that understanding.

My "inconsistency" is due to consistency with the rest of Paul in the NT.

Helpful, though, is understanding that in Paul's usage throughout the NT, "all" is used in two ways, particularly seen when he is dealing with the difference between unbelieving Jews and believing Gentiles:
1) all without exception = all mankind
2) all without distinction = Gentile as well as Jew, or Jew as well as Gentile.

Then "the Reformation" is not being consistent with Romans 5:19 but is in fact reading its theological bias into the verse. The reformation wants the first half of the verse to teach its theological bias of OS yet the idea unconditionality of making all men sinners which they add to the first part of the verse backfires on the in the second part of the verse

Ephfourfive · Feb 8, 2021

Clare73 said:
No, in the context of Ro 1:18-3:20, where most of those Scriptures (post #85) are located, works are not just the Mosaic law.
Works are deeds, whether according to the Mosaic Law, by which God judged the Jews unrighteous (2:1-3:8), or
according to conscience, by which God judged the Gentiles to be unrighteous (1:18-32),
and thereby declared all mankind unrighteous,--"no one is righteous, not even one" (Ro 3:10, 23, 5:12, 18) and locked-up in sin (Ro 3:9, 11:32; Gal 3:22).

All law-keeping is excluded from having anything to do with the righteousness of justification; i.e., being declared by God to be "not guilty,"
which saves you from God's wrath on sin at the Judgment (Ro 5:9).

Now, in light of Ro 1:18-3:20, go back (post #85) and review again what Paul reveals from the third heaven (2Co 12:1-5)
regarding works and the righteousness of justification; i.e., all works are excluded.

Salvation is the Lord's!" (Rev 7:10), and his alone (Rev 12:10, 19:1; Ps 37:39, 62:1; Isa 43:11; Hos 13:4).

The issue, in the NT emphasis and importance of separating works from justification (salvation), is so that the redeemed have a
full understanding and appreciation of the sheer magnitude of their blessing from the goodness of God in their redemption. . .and at
so great a price to him, a salvation that is all of God and nothing (nada, zero, zip) of man, for "Salvation is the Lord's!" (Rev 7:10),
so that no one can boast (Eph 2:9; 1Co 1:29), they can only marvel in gratitude and praise of the glorious and infinite GOODNESS of God!

That is why Paul is so insistent on it (which importance was revealed to him by Jesus in the third heaven)--for the benefit of the believer's apprehension of the magnitude of the GOODNESS of God.

Then all are saved?

Albion · Feb 8, 2021

Ephfourfive said:
Apart from the mosaic law yes of course but never faith alone apart from the church and the sacraments instituted by Christ

Three things are eternal (and therefore inseparable) faith, hope, & charity, and the greatest of these is charity! 1 cor 13
Not faith alone

Obviously, nobody is going to understand justification by faith if he thinks that "faith alone" means nothing more than "faith is all alone."

Clare73 · Feb 8, 2021

Clare73 said:
No, in the context of Ro 1:18-3:20, where most of those Scriptures (post #85) are located, works are not just the Mosaic law.
Works are performance, whether according to the Mosaic Law, by which God judged the Jews unrighteous (2:1-3:8), or
according to conscience, by which God judged the Gentiles to be unrighteous (1:18-32),
and thereby declared all mankind unrighteous,--"no one is righteous, not even one" (Ro 3:10, 23, 5:12, 18) and locked-up in sin (Ro 3:9, 11:32; Gal 3:22).

All law-keeping is excluded from having anything to do with the righteousness of justification; i.e., being declared by God to be "not guilty,"
which saves you from God's wrath on sin at the Judgment (Ro 5:9).

Now, in light of Ro 1:18-3:20, go back (post #85) and review again what Paul reveals from the third heaven (2Co 12:1-5)
regarding works and the righteousness of justification; i.e., all works are excluded.

Salvation is the Lord's!" (Rev 7:10), and his alone (Rev 12:10, 19:1; Ps 37:39, 62:1; Isa 43:11; Hos 13:4).
The issue, in the NT emphasis and importance of separating works from justification (salvation), is so that the redeemed have a
full understanding and appreciation of the sheer magnitude of their blessing from the goodness of God in their redemption. . .and at
so great a price to him, a salvation that is all of God and nothing (nada, zero, zip) of man, for "Salvation is the Lord's!" (Rev 7:10),
so that no one can boast (Eph 2:9; 1Co 1:29), they can only marvel in gratitude and praise of the glorious and infinite

GOODNESS of God!

That is why Paul is so insistent on it (which importance was revealed to him by Jesus in the third heaven, 2Co 12:1-5)--for the benefit of the believer's apprehension of the magnitude of the GOODNESS of God.

Ephfourfive said:
Then all are saved?

Those who do not believe and trust in the person and atoning work of Jesus Christ for the remission of their sin are not saved (Jn 3:18, 36),
as in Orthodox Jews, who reject Jesus Christ, and remain locked-up in their sin of unbelief.

Clare73 · Feb 8, 2021

Butterball1 said:
Then "the Reformation" is not being consistent with Romans 5:19 but is in fact reading its theological bias into the verse. The reformation wants the first half of the verse to teach its theological bias of OS yet the idea unconditionality of making all men sinners which they add to the first part of the verse backfires on the in the second part of the verse

Addressed in post #58 (presented in your post #96, above). Let's do it again.

Perhaps your "not being consistent within the verse" is my "actually being consistent within the entire NT."

Or perhaps you are unaware of Paul's frequent usage of such words as "the whole world" and "all" in two different ways:
1) all without exception = all mankind,
2) all without distinction = Gentile as well as Jew,

of which Ro 5:18-19 is an example:
". . .just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all (without exception) men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all (without distinction, Gentile as well as Jew) men. For Just as through the disobedience of the one man, the many (does not exclude "all") were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many (does not require "all") will be made righteous."

Justification?

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