aiki
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Fair enough. But my point still stands: how can he be perfectly just and perfectly merciful? The former implies he punishes people, while the latter implies he absolves them.
He does both perfectly, without contradiction between the two. We see that mercy and punishment are not mutually exclusive in our own world, so why the confusion about how God exercises these two things on a divine level? As I have noted already, generally speaking God's justice waits upon the exercise of His mercy. This is seen very clearly in the gospel. God's holy justice demands satisfaction concerning all who sin (that means every human being). God has ordained in His absolute sovereignty that "the wages of sin is death" and that "without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sin." This death, the punishment for sin, is experienced ultimately and eternally in Hell. But God is not just holy and just; He is also merciful and loving. Consequently, He has made a way to fulfill the demands of His holy justice against sinners while at the same time extending mercy to them. He accomplished this through the sacrificial shedding of the blood of His only Son, Jesus Christ, for your sin and mine. Jesus became the "Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world." In so doing he both satisfied God's justice and expressed the incredible depths of God's mercy toward wicked humanity. As one would expect, God's justice and mercy find equal and harmonious expression in His actions toward us. If we reject God's gift of salvation, His awesome expression of mercy toward us, then we can expect only finally His terrible justice.
I call it one religious text amongst many, a collection of texts compiled over the a period of about 4000 years (the oral tradition of Bronze-age nomads, letters sent by early Christians, etc).
Then you have not studied the nature of the Bible very closely. What you have done above is painted a caricature of the Bible. In reality, the Bible is an amazingly cohesive, unified text - especially given its highly unusual construction.
Not to mention the fact that the exact texts used in the Bible differs from tradition to tradition (Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, Lutheran, Protestants, etc, all compile different texts and call it 'the' Bible).
The differences are not perhaps as significant as you may think. And there are some 25,000 extant ancient manuscripts of Scripture by which any and every translation may be judged as accurate or not. No other historical text in existence can boast any where near as many supporting ancient manuscripts. The contention that the proliferation of Bible versions somehow erodes the accurateness of the Bible is not, then, in light of these facts, justified.
Peace.
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