Please quote your verse and explain what you think it means, then ask your question.
You're clearly demand that salvation (righteousness) comes by the law. And it clearly doesn't.
See that's where we part ways Scratch. You purport that salvation = righteousness and righteous=salvation.
So when you read verses like
Psalm 106:3 "How blessed are those who keep justice, Who practice righteousness at all times!"
Ezekiel 18:5, 22 "But if a man is righteous and practices justice and righteousness...All his transgressions which he has committed will not be remembered against him; because of his righteousness which he has practiced, he will live."
Ezekiel 45:9 `Thus says the Lord GOD, "Enough, you princes of Israel; put away violence and destruction, and practice justice and righteousness. Stop your expropriations from My people," declares the Lord GOD."
For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.
Romans 10:5 "For Moses writes that the man who practices the righteousness which is based on law shall live by that righteousness."
Matthew 6:1 "Practice not your righteousness before men"
1 John 2:29 "If you know that He is righteous, you know that everyone also who practices righteousness is born of Him."
1 John 3:7, 10 "Little children, make sure no one deceives you; the one who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous; By this the children of God and the children of the devil are obvious: anyone who does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor the one who does not love his brother."
When you read these do you consider the task at hand is to PRACTICE SALVATION...or something else?