John's baptism (Mk 1:1-5)

Oh heck, i'll take a shoot at this.

Breanainn said:

From my recollection of Leviticus, Deuteronomy, etc., I don't remember anything that called for a baptism in the Jewish faith. So why exactly is John baptizing people? What foundation does this action have?

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The priests in the OT were required to be baptised as a symbol of their "purification".

Exo 29:4-9 KJV
(4) And Aaron and his sons thou shalt bring unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, and shalt wash them with water.
(5) And thou shalt take the garments, and put upon Aaron the coat, and the robe of the ephod, and the ephod, and the breastplate, and gird him with the curious girdle of the ephod:
(6) And thou shalt put the mitre upon his head, and put the holy crown upon the mitre.
(7) Then shalt thou take the anointing oil, and pour it upon his head, and anoint him.
(8) And thou shalt bring his sons, and put coats upon them.
(9) And thou shalt gird them with girdles, Aaron and his sons, and put the bonnets on them: and the priest's office shall be theirs for a perpetual statute: and thou shalt consecrate Aaron and his sons.​

Now, what was John's message:

Mat 3:2-3 KJV And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand. (3) For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.​

And, what exactly is Israel's role in this kingdom:

Exo 19:6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.
Isa 61:6 But ye shall be named the Priests of the LORD: men shall call you the Ministers of our God: ye shall eat the riches of the Gentiles, and in their glory shall ye boast yourselves.​

John's baptism was one of repentance to prepare the people for their coming King and was a symbol of washing/purification even through Acts 22:16. I also believe this baptism was a symbol of the coming priesthood.
Why was Christ baptized?

Breanainn said:

Wow. Thank you for the great response. If anyone else has anything to add, I'd still like to hear it.

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Why was Christ baptized?

Act 22:16 KJV And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.​

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Just to clarify; I was not saying Christ was baptized to wash away any sin, we all know He had no sin. He was baptized as a symbol of His annointing as a priest. The High Priest!

Breanainn said:

From my recollection of Leviticus, Deuteronomy, etc., I don't remember anything that called for a baptism in the Jewish faith. So why exactly is John baptizing people? What foundation does this action have?

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You are correct: John's baptism had nothing to do with the Law of Moses, "For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John" (Mat 11:13) and "The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it." (Luke 16:16)

John's baptism was purely Messianic in nature. It was to prepare people for the kingdom of the Messiah, which was John's message "Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand." (Mat 3:2) John was "The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight."

John did not get his mission to baptize from the Law, for there was never any such thing in the Law, but directly from God by direct revelation! "And I knew him (Jesus) not: but he that sent me to baptize with water (the Father), the same said unto me, 'Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.' And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God." (John 1:33-34)

Also, John's baptism, just like Christian baptism, was NOT MERELY symbolic (although it did have a symbolic aspect). Mark 1:4 says "John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins." He did not baptize them because they already had recieved remission of sins, but so that they would receive it! Christian baptism is for the same purpose, as Peter declares "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." (Acts 2:38)

christian-only said:

Also, John's baptism, just like Christian baptism, was NOT MERELY symbolic (although it did have a symbolic aspect). Mark 1:4 says "John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins." He did not baptize them because they already had recieved remission of sins, but so that they would receive it! Christian baptism is for the same purpose, as Peter declares "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." (Acts 2:38)

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Good point... I sometimes wonder why they were "washing away sins" after the cross and being "baptized for remission of sins". I personally think it had a lot to do with the law and the tradition of "washing".

"washing" seemed to be a big part of Jewish tradition. Not only as a purification into the priesthood:
All throughout the OT we read of washings to make clean, or purify as the definition also says.

Any thoughts?

@@Paul@@ said:

Good point... I sometimes wonder why they were "washing away sins" after the cross and being "baptized for remission of sins". I personally think it had a lot to do with the law and the tradition of "washing"...Any thoughts?

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Well, I do believe the Law prefigured it. The Law was a shadow of Christ. (Col 2:17) The consecration of the priests (Exo 29) under the OT prefigures our consecration. The OT consecration of the priests had its various sacrifices (which point to Jesus' one sacrifice) and its washing (which points to baptism) and then the putting on of the priestly garments after the washing (which points to putting on Christ in baptism, Gal 3:27) and then the anointing with the holy oil (which points to receiving the gift of the Spirit in baptism, Acts 2:38) and finally the eating of the sacrifices (which points to the Lord's Supper).

But, as far as the phrases "wash away sins" and "baptized for the remission of sins," they have more to do with Christ's blood than the Law for sure! Jesus said in Mat 26:28 "For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins" and Peter says "be baptized for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38) Coincidence? Certainly not! Paul says "Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?" (Rom 6:3) Jesus died so that we might have remission of sins, and we are baptized into his death for the very same reason! In baptism, therefore, Christ's blood that He shed for the remission of sins washes away our sins and remits them!

I have studied a lot on this...are you asking about the significance of the baptism offered by John B, or the significance of Jesus being baptized under John B's baptism?

Well, first of all, I would say that JB's Baptism was not a levitical one, but a moral/spiritual one. A simple summary would be as follows:

It was for all of Israel. The purpose was mainly two-fold: it signified a turning (repentance) to God for the confession and forgiveness of sins for Israel as a whole, and it also was in anticipation for the Messianic baptism (of spirit and fire)-assuring the baptized of a place in the rule of the Messiah.

In regards to Jesus' baptism, this was neither a Jewish, nor a Christian baptism...it was the same baptism that everyone else was coming for. Jesus' baptism was also two-fold in its significance:

It was a passive submission to God and his will, as he was baptized along with all the other penitent people of Israel who were turning (repenting) towards God as they acknowleged and were forgiven of their sins. On the other hand, Jesus' baptism was also the beginning of his Messianic task, as observed by the voice and HS.