John's baptism (Mk 1:1-5)

[Biarien]

Mark 1
1The beginning of the gospel about Jesus Christ, the Son of God.[1]
2It is written in Isaiah the prophet:
"I will send my messenger ahead of you,
who will prepare your way"[2] --
3"a voice of one calling in the desert,
'Prepare the way for the Lord,
make straight paths for him.' "[3] 4And so John came, baptizing in the desert region and preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins. 5The whole Judean countryside and all the people of Jerusalem went out to him. Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him in the Jordan River.

From my recollection of Leviticus, Deuteronomy, etc., I don't remember anything that called for a baptism in the Jewish faith. So why exactly is John baptizing people? What foundation does this action have?

 

[@@Paul@@]

Oh heck, i'll take a shoot at this.

From my recollection of Leviticus, Deuteronomy, etc., I don't remember anything that called for a baptism in the Jewish faith. So why exactly is John baptizing people? What foundation does this action have?

The priests in the OT were required to be baptised as a symbol of their "purification".

Exo 29:4-9 KJV
(4) And Aaron and his sons thou shalt bring unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, and shalt wash them with water.
(5) And thou shalt take the garments, and put upon Aaron the coat, and the robe of the ephod, and the ephod, and the breastplate, and gird him with the curious girdle of the ephod:
(6) And thou shalt put the mitre upon his head, and put the holy crown upon the mitre.
(7) Then shalt thou take the anointing oil, and pour it upon his head, and anoint him.
(8) And thou shalt bring his sons, and put coats upon them.
(9) And thou shalt gird them with girdles, Aaron and his sons, and put the bonnets on them: and the priest's office shall be theirs for a perpetual statute: and thou shalt consecrate Aaron and his sons.​

Now, what was John's message:

Mat 3:2-3 KJV And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand. (3) For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.​

And, what exactly is Israel's role in this kingdom:

Exo 19:6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.
Isa 61:6 But ye shall be named the Priests of the LORD: men shall call you the Ministers of our God: ye shall eat the riches of the Gentiles, and in their glory shall ye boast yourselves.​

John's baptism was one of repentance to prepare the people for their coming King and was a symbol of washing/purification even through Acts 22:16. I also believe this baptism was a symbol of the coming priesthood.
Why was Christ baptized?

Act 22:16 KJV And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.​

 

[Biarien]

Wow. Thank you for the great response. If anyone else has anything to add, I'd still like to hear it.

 

[@@Paul@@]

Wow. Thank you for the great response. If anyone else has anything to add, I'd still like to hear it.

Why was Christ baptized?

Act 22:16 KJV And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.​

Just to clarify; I was not saying Christ was baptized to wash away any sin, we all know He had no sin. He was baptized as a symbol of His annointing as a priest. The High Priest!

 

[christian-only]

From my recollection of Leviticus, Deuteronomy, etc., I don't remember anything that called for a baptism in the Jewish faith. So why exactly is John baptizing people? What foundation does this action have?

You are correct: John's baptism had nothing to do with the Law of Moses, "For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John" (Mat 11:13) and "The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it." (Luke 16:16)

John's baptism was purely Messianic in nature. It was to prepare people for the kingdom of the Messiah, which was John's message "Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand." (Mat 3:2) John was "The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight."

John did not get his mission to baptize from the Law, for there was never any such thing in the Law, but directly from God by direct revelation! "And I knew him (Jesus) not: but he that sent me to baptize with water (the Father), the same said unto me, 'Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.' And I saw, and bare record that this is the Son of God." (John 1:33-34)

Also, John's baptism, just like Christian baptism, was NOT MERELY symbolic (although it did have a symbolic aspect). Mark 1:4 says "John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins." He did not baptize them because they already had recieved remission of sins, but so that they would receive it! Christian baptism is for the same purpose, as Peter declares "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." (Acts 2:38)

 

[@@Paul@@]

Also, John's baptism, just like Christian baptism, was NOT MERELY symbolic (although it did have a symbolic aspect). Mark 1:4 says "John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins." He did not baptize them because they already had recieved remission of sins, but so that they would receive it! Christian baptism is for the same purpose, as Peter declares "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." (Acts 2:38)

Good point... I sometimes wonder why they were "washing away sins" after the cross and being "baptized for remission of sins". I personally think it had a lot to do with the law and the tradition of "washing".

"washing" seemed to be a big part of Jewish tradition. Not only as a purification into the priesthood:

Num 8:5-7 KJV
(5) And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying,
(6) Take the Levites from among the children of Israel, and cleanse them.
(7) And thus shalt thou do unto them, to cleanse them: Sprinkle water of purifying upon them, and let them shave all their flesh, and let them wash their clothes, and so make themselves clean.
Num 8:21-22 KJV
(21) And the Levites were purified, and they washed their clothes; and Aaron offered them as an offering before the LORD; and Aaron made an atonement for them to cleanse them.
(22) And after that went the Levites in to do their service in the tabernacle of the congregation before Aaron, and before his sons: as the LORD had commanded Moses concerning the Levites, so did they unto them.​

All throughout the OT we read of washings to make clean, or purify as the definition also says.

(Lev 13:6 KJV) And the priest shall look on him again the seventh day: and, behold, if the plague be somewhat dark, and the plague spread not in the skin, the priest shall pronounce him clean: it is but a scab: and he shall wash his clothes, and be clean.
(Lev 14:8 KJV) And he that is to be cleansed shall wash his clothes, and shave off all his hair, and wash himself in water, that he may be clean: and after that he shall come into the camp, and shall tarry abroad out of his tent seven days.
(Lev 14:9 KJV) But it shall be on the seventh day, that he shall shave all his hair off his head and his beard and his eyebrows, even all his hair he shall shave off: and he shall wash his clothes, also he shall wash his flesh in water, and he shall be clean.
(Lev 15:8 KJV) And if he that hath the issue spit upon him that is clean; then he shall wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and be unclean until the even.
(Lev 17:15 KJV) And every soul that eateth that which died of itself, or that which was torn with beasts, whether it be one of your own country, or a stranger, he shall both wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and be unclean until the even: then shall he be clean.
(Num 8:7 KJV) And thus shalt thou do unto them, to cleanse them: Sprinkle water of purifying upon them, and let them shave all their flesh, and let them wash their clothes, and so make themselves clean.
(Num 31:24 KJV) And ye shall wash your clothes on the seventh day, and ye shall be clean, and afterward ye shall come into the camp.
(Job 9:30 KJV) If I wash myself with snow water, and make my hands never so clean;
(Psa 51:7 KJV) Purge me with hyssop, and I shall be clean: wash me, and I shall be whiter than snow.
(Isa 1:16 KJV) Wash you, make you clean; put away the evil of your doings from before mine eyes; cease to do evil;​

Any thoughts?

 

[christian-only]

Good point... I sometimes wonder why they were "washing away sins" after the cross and being "baptized for remission of sins". I personally think it had a lot to do with the law and the tradition of "washing"...Any thoughts?

Well, I do believe the Law prefigured it. The Law was a shadow of Christ. (Col 2:17) The consecration of the priests (Exo 29) under the OT prefigures our consecration. The OT consecration of the priests had its various sacrifices (which point to Jesus' one sacrifice) and its washing (which points to baptism) and then the putting on of the priestly garments after the washing (which points to putting on Christ in baptism, Gal 3:27) and then the anointing with the holy oil (which points to receiving the gift of the Spirit in baptism, Acts 2:38) and finally the eating of the sacrifices (which points to the Lord's Supper).

But, as far as the phrases "wash away sins" and "baptized for the remission of sins," they have more to do with Christ's blood than the Law for sure! Jesus said in Mat 26:28 "For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins" and Peter says "be baptized for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38) Coincidence? Certainly not! Paul says "Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?" (Rom 6:3) Jesus died so that we might have remission of sins, and we are baptized into his death for the very same reason! In baptism, therefore, Christ's blood that He shed for the remission of sins washes away our sins and remits them!

 

[Biarien]

Great responses so far. Thanks.

 

[ischus]

I have studied a lot on this...are you asking about the significance of the baptism offered by John B, or the significance of Jesus being baptized under John B's baptism?

 

[Biarien]

Both, really. The signifigance of John the Baptist's baptism would determine the signifigance of Jesus' baptism, I would think. If you've done extensive studies, I'd love to hear as much as you have to offer.

 

[ischus]

Well, first of all, I would say that JB's Baptism was not a levitical one, but a moral/spiritual one. A simple summary would be as follows:

It was for all of Israel. The purpose was mainly two-fold: it signified a turning (repentance) to God for the confession and forgiveness of sins for Israel as a whole, and it also was in anticipation for the Messianic baptism (of spirit and fire)-assuring the baptized of a place in the rule of the Messiah.

 

[ischus]

In regards to Jesus' baptism, this was neither a Jewish, nor a Christian baptism...it was the same baptism that everyone else was coming for. Jesus' baptism was also two-fold in its significance:

It was a passive submission to God and his will, as he was baptized along with all the other penitent people of Israel who were turning (repenting) towards God as they acknowleged and were forgiven of their sins. On the other hand, Jesus' baptism was also the beginning of his Messianic task, as observed by the voice and HS.