Jesus was crucified on Thursday

[prodromos]

You do mean, "Friday the day Jesus was crucified", don't you?

I'd say so seeing as he stated as much on every other post.

 

[Der Alte]

You do mean, "Friday the day Jesus was crucified", don't you?

My fingers are 80 years old sometime they type what they want to. You are correct.

 

[bling]

You might also add: Luke 24: 21 but we had hoped that he was the one who was going to redeem Israel. And what is more, it is the third day since all this took place.
The third day back would be Thursday.

 

[prodromos]

You might also add: Luke 24: 21 but we had hoped that he was the one who was going to redeem Israel. And what is more, it is the third day since all this took place.
The third day back would be Thursday.

The Jews do inclusive counting. the 1st day since would be the day on which the events occurred.

 

[ViaCrucis]

Jesus was crucified and buried on the day of preparation--that is, the day to prepare for the weekly Sabbath. That's Friday before sundown.

Because the Sabbath was drawing close, the women could not anoint the body with spices, and thus had to wait until after the Sabbath was over.

Early on the first day of the week, before sunrise, the women came and discovered the tomb was empty.

Jesus was crucified on the day before the Sabbath.
Jesus' body rested in the tomb all day during the Sabbath.
Jesus was raised from the dead on the day after the Sabbath, on the third day.

There's a reason why the traditional Christian view is the traditional Christian view.

It's the only view that actually agrees with the details of the events as given by the Four Evangelists.

People who get hung up on the three days and three nights thing don't have anyway to deal with the plain facts given in the Gospels except by either dismissing them, or trying to explain them away.

But the Scriptures are clear:

Jesus rose on the third day. The third day after He was crucified. He rose on the first day of the week. He was crucified on the day before the Sabbath. He died on Friday, He rose on Sunday.

There's no way to get around that.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[ViaCrucis]

Why is this controversial theology? It has no bearing on theology.

Except that quite often those who try and undermine the traditional--and biblical--account usually have some kind of theologically-driven agenda for doing so. At least, in my experience that has been the case.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[Bobgf]

The Jews do inclusive counting. the 1st day since would be the day on which the events occurred.

Lets see if I got this right.
So to the Jews, yesterday would be two days back ?

 

[Der Alte]

Lets see if I got this right.
So to the Jews, yesterday would be two days back ?

Reposting from an earlier post.
On seventeen separate occasions, Jesus or His friends spoke of the timetable involving His death and resurrection.

• Ten times it was specified that the resurrection would take place on the "third day" (Mat.16:21; 17:23; 20:19; Mark 9:31; 10:34, Luke 9:22; 13:32; 18:33; 24:7,46).
• On five occasions they said, "in three days" (Matthew 26:61; 27:40, Mark 15:29, John 2:19-20).
• Twice they used the phrase, "after three days" (Matthew 27:63, Mark 8:31).
• And one time only Jesus spoke of His death as "three days and three nights" (Matthew 12:40).

Without question, all of these various expressions are used to describe the very same event. There seems to be no controversy regarding this point. "The third day," "in three days," "after three days," and "three days and three nights" are equivalent terms used in the scripture in reference to the resurrection of Jesus.
Expressions Cannot Be Literal
Now we ask the question: Can all of these expressions be taken in a strictly literal sense and still harmonize with each other? Absolutely not! For example, "after three days" would certainly have to be interpreted as longer than seventy-two hours. "In three days" could mean anytime less than seventy-two hours, and "three days and three nights" could only mean exactly seventy-two hours to the second. And "the third day" presents even greater problems as we shall notice in a moment.
Does this sound terribly confusing? If so, it is only because men have placed their own interpretation upon the meaning of God's Word. We must let the scripture explain itself, and especially, we must let Christ provide definitions for the words which He spoke. It would be a mammoth mistake to seize upon any one of the expressions used and force its strict compliance with our interpretation without reference to the other sixteen texts on the subject.
Inclusive Reckoning
The only way we can harmonize all of these apparently contradictory statements of Jesus is to understand them in the light of inclusive reckoning of time. This was the method used throughout the scripture in computing time, and we must apply the same method now, unless we want mass confusion. The unreasonable insistence upon the use of twentieth century English idioms of speech to interpret first century Greek or Hebrew has led to some extreme views indeed. Jesus and His friends spoke and wrote in harmony with the common literacy usage of the day, and that usage recognized inclusive reckoning of time. In simple language, this means that any part of a day was counted as a whole day.
Before we turn to the scripture for confirmation of this principle, let us read the authoritative statement of the Jewish Encyclopedia on the matter.
"A short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though, of the first day only a few minutes after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day." Jewish Encyclopedia, Volume 4, page 475.
How clearly this defines the Hebrew method of computing time. Any small part of a day was reckoned as the entire twenty-four hour period. It is the Hebrew form of speech and language. Scores of contradictions would appear in both Old and New Testament if this principle were ignored. We must compare Scripture with Scripture and use the idiom of the language in which the scripture was written. Inclusive reckoning was taken for granted by all writers of the Scripture.
See complete lengthy 11 page article discussing all the various arguments @ this link.
Three Days and Three Nights

 

[prodromos]

Lets see if I got this right.
So to the Jews, yesterday would be two days back ?

Yes, that is correct.
Read Acts 10, count the days then try and square that with what Cornelius says in verse 30 any other way

 

[ViaCrucis]

Lets see if I got this right.
So to the Jews, yesterday would be two days back ?

In the first century, yes.

Today would be the second day since yesterday. Because yesterday is day 1, and today is day 2.

Jesus was raised on the third day.

The first day was the day He was crucified.
The second day is the day He was dead in the tomb.
The third day is the day He rose from the dead.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[bling]

The Jews do inclusive counting. the 1st day since would be the day on which the events occurred.

I have heard that, but no one has provided any scripture or secular reference to support that, do you have any?

 

[Der Alte]

I have heard that, but no one has provided any scripture or secular reference to support that, do you have any?

I provided such reference 3 posts above post #48. But here again.

DAY (Hebrew, "yom"):
By: Emil G. Hirsch, Michael Friedländer
In the Bible, the season of light (Gen. i. 5), lasting "from dawn [lit. "the rising of the morning"] to the coming forth of the stars" (Neh. iv. 15, 17). The term "day" is used also to denote a period of twenty-four hours (Ex. xxi. 21). In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day; e.g., the day of the funeral, even when the latter takes place late in the afternoon, is counted as the first of the seven days of mourning; a short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though of the first day only a few minutes remained after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day. Again, a man who hears of a vow made by his wife or his daughter, and desires to cancel the vow, must do so on the same day on which he hears of it, as otherwise the protest has no effect; even if the hearing takes place a little time before night, the annulment must be done within that little time. The day is reckoned from evening to evening—i.e., night and day—except in reference to sacrifices, where daytime and the night following constitute one day (Lev. vii. 15; see Calendar). "The day" denotes: (a) Day of the Lord; (b) the Day of Atonement; (c) the treatise of the Mishnah that contains the laws concerning the Day of Atonement (See Yoma and Sabbath).
DAY - JewishEncyclopedia.com​

 

[bling]

I provided such reference 3 posts above post #48. But here again.

DAY (Hebrew, "yom"):
By: Emil G. Hirsch, Michael Friedländer
In the Bible, the season of light (Gen. i. 5), lasting "from dawn [lit. "the rising of the morning"] to the coming forth of the stars" (Neh. iv. 15, 17). The term "day" is used also to denote a period of twenty-four hours (Ex. xxi. 21). In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day; e.g., the day of the funeral, even when the latter takes place late in the afternoon, is counted as the first of the seven days of mourning; a short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though of the first day only a few minutes remained after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day. Again, a man who hears of a vow made by his wife or his daughter, and desires to cancel the vow, must do so on the same day on which he hears of it, as otherwise the protest has no effect; even if the hearing takes place a little time before night, the annulment must be done within that little time. The day is reckoned from evening to evening—i.e., night and day—except in reference to sacrifices, where daytime and the night following constitute one day (Lev. vii. 15; see Calendar). "The day" denotes: (a) Day of the Lord; (b) the Day of Atonement; (c) the treatise of the Mishnah that contains the laws concerning the Day of Atonement (See Yoma and Sabbath).
DAY - JewishEncyclopedia.com​

I agree with that, but that is not what I am looking for. It is Sunday for those men on the road to Emmaus, so that is today for them. Saturday would be yesterday, so where would it say Friday would be three days ago and not two days ago. You would have to cont Sunday as one day ago, which is not found as far as I can find anywhere. Today is today and not one day ago.

 

[prodromos]

I agree with that, but that is not what I am looking for. It is Sunday for those men on the road to Emmaus, so that is today for them. Saturday would be yesterday, so where would it say Friday would be three days ago and not two days ago. You would have to cont Sunday as one day ago, which is not found as far as I can find anywhere. Today is today and not one day ago.

The expression, "one day ago", doesn't exist in Hebrew language and culture because it is entirely redundant.

 

[Der Alte]

I agree with that, but that is not what I am looking for. It is Sunday for those men on the road to Emmaus, so that is today for them. Saturday would be yesterday, so where would it say Friday would be three days ago and not two days ago. You would have to cont Sunday as one day ago, which is not found as far as I can find anywhere. Today is today and not one day ago.

Please carefully read the article I quoted and linked to, a part of a day is considered as a day. Friday day 1, Saturday day 2, Sunday day 3.

Luke 24:21 but we had hoped that he was the one who was going to redeem Israel. And what is more, it is the third day since all this took place.

On seventeen separate occasions, Jesus or His friends spoke of the timetable involving His death and resurrection.

• Ten times it was specified that the resurrection would take place on the "third day" (Mat.16:21; 17:23; 20:19; Mark 9:31; 10:34, Luke 9:22; 13:32; 18:33; 24:7,46).
• On five occasions they said, "in three days" (Matthew 26:61; 27:40, Mark 15:29, John 2:19-20).
• Twice they used the phrase, "after three days" (Matthew 27:63, Mark 8:31).
• And one time only Jesus spoke of His death as "three days and three nights" (Matthew 12:40).

Without question, all of these various expressions are used to describe the very same event. There seems to be no controversy regarding this point. "The third day," "in three days," "after three days," and "three days and three nights" are equivalent terms used in the scripture in reference to the resurrection of Jesus.
Expressions Cannot Be Literal

Now we ask the question: Can all of these expressions be taken in a strictly literal sense and still harmonize with each other? Absolutely not! For example, "after three days" would certainly have to be interpreted as longer than seventy-two hours. "In three days" could mean anytime less than seventy-two hours, and "three days and three nights" could only mean exactly seventy-two hours to the second. And "the third day" presents even greater problems as we shall notice in a moment.

Does this sound terribly confusing? If so, it is only because men have placed their own interpretation upon the meaning of God's Word. We must let the scripture explain itself, and especially, we must let Christ provide definitions for the words which He spoke. It would be a mammoth mistake to seize upon any one of the expressions used and force its strict compliance with our interpretation without reference to the other sixteen texts on the subject.

 

[bling]

The expression, "one day ago", doesn't exist in Hebrew language and culture because it is entirely redundant.

Yes, I agree, so why would three days ago include the day you are in?

 

[prodromos]

Yes, I agree, so why would three days ago include the day you are in?

Redundant as in there were a number of terms used for "today". As to why? You will have to ask the Jews. It is my understanding that their counting did not include the concept of "zero", which is something the Arabs came up with.

 

[bling]

Please carefully read the article I quoted and linked to, a part of a day is considered as a day. Friday day 1, Saturday day 2, Sunday day 3.

Luke 24:21 but we had hoped that he was the one who was going to redeem Israel. And what is more, it is the third day since all this took place.

On seventeen separate occasions, Jesus or His friends spoke of the timetable involving His death and resurrection.

• Ten times it was specified that the resurrection would take place on the "third day" (Mat.16:21; 17:23; 20:19; Mark 9:31; 10:34, Luke 9:22; 13:32; 18:33; 24:7,46).
• On five occasions they said, "in three days" (Matthew 26:61; 27:40, Mark 15:29, John 2:19-20).
• Twice they used the phrase, "after three days" (Matthew 27:63, Mark 8:31).
• And one time only Jesus spoke of His death as "three days and three nights" (Matthew 12:40).

Without question, all of these various expressions are used to describe the very same event. There seems to be no controversy regarding this point. "The third day," "in three days," "after three days," and "three days and three nights" are equivalent terms used in the scripture in reference to the resurrection of Jesus.
Expressions Cannot Be Literal

Now we ask the question: Can all of these expressions be taken in a strictly literal sense and still harmonize with each other? Absolutely not! For example, "after three days" would certainly have to be interpreted as longer than seventy-two hours. "In three days" could mean anytime less than seventy-two hours, and "three days and three nights" could only mean exactly seventy-two hours to the second. And "the third day" presents even greater problems as we shall notice in a moment.

Does this sound terribly confusing? If so, it is only because men have placed their own interpretation upon the meaning of God's Word. We must let the scripture explain itself, and especially, we must let Christ provide definitions for the words which He spoke. It would be a mammoth mistake to seize upon any one of the expressions used and force its strict compliance with our interpretation without reference to the other sixteen texts on the subject.

I do not agree with the idea three days and three nights has to be 72 hours, since it does not have to be full days to be considered a day, show me a day and night having to be 24 hours? Jesus explains it as three days and three nights so the other discriptions certianly could mean three days and nights so we should interprete them that way.

 

[prodromos]

I do not agree with the idea three days and three nights has to be 72 hours, since it does not have to be full days to be considered a day, show me a day and night having to be 24 hours? Jesus explains it as three days and three nights so the other discriptions certianly could mean three days and nights so we should interprete them that way.

The 'fullness' of the expression is a big clue to it being idiom. When you hear that England beat Wales in the rugby finals, you understand that it was actually a tiny subset of England, the English rugby team, that defeated a tiny subset of Wales, the Welsh rugby team. It never occurs to us that the entire English nation was playing against the entire Welsh nation. We use synecdoche all the time and you find it used many times in the Scriptures also.

 

[bling]

The 'fullness' of the expression is a big clue to it being idiom. When you hear that England beat Wales in the rugby finals, you understand that it was actually a tiny subset of England, the English rugby team, that defeated a tiny subset of Wales, the Welsh rugby team. It never occurs to us that the entire English nation was playing against the entire Welsh nation. We use synecdoche all the time and you find it used many times in the Scriptures also.

OK. It does not make any real difference for me.