Clare73
Blood-bought
- Jun 12, 2012
- 28,067
- 7,216
- Country
- United States
- Gender
- Female
- Faith
- Christian
- Marital Status
- Married
- Politics
- US-Republican
Read again the first sentence I stated.So by your definition we can only use "all" after Moses? Before Moses there were no Jews and Gentiles, before Abraham there were only Gentiles. The context dictates how the all should be used. Rom 11:32 " For God has committed them all to disobedience, that he might have mercy on all" the same all committed to disobedience is the same all he will give mercy to, it has nothing to do with Jew and Gentile. Jesus is not a sinner but in some traditions that teach most are lost forever, then yes Jesus missed the mark and by definition would be a sinner. Thankfully the Holy Spirit has awakened some to see that when Jesus is called the savior of the world , we understand that as a declaration not a possibility.
The context of Scripture includes pre-Abraham before there were "Gentiles."
Last edited:
Upvote
0