I could be wrong. If so, I'm fairly sure that evidence will eventually show itself to lead me to that conclusion. It's happened before and it's how I came to my present conclusions.
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The Apocrypha includes doctrines in variance with the Bible, such as prayers for the dead and sinless perfection.
How are these Catholic doctrines in variance with the Bible?
Perhaps micro-evolution is. But I have to question how macro-evolution would be repeatedly observable.
I'm sorry, but I have no idea what this means. I don't wish to be disrespectful.The process itself does not have to be repeatedly observable. As long as the evidence that leads to it concluding it is.
How so?There are lots of processes that cannot be directly observed. However, the evidence can be.
No my stance is not infallible, none of us are perfect and all are prone to mistake. This includes text books, the bible [all versions of it] and those who wrote them.
I am dissuaded to various aspects of each of these lines of reasoning.Creation vs. evolution.
I have difficulty seeing how the 1611 KJV could be infallibly inspired, if it started with 80 books and then was cut down to 66 books.Yes the 1611 KJV had 80 books.
Oh okay. Quite interesting.Evolution talks about how life changes. Abiogenesis talks about how life started.
There really isnt such things as micro and macro evolution. There is only evolution. Youll begin to understand the flaw in utilizing these fictional words if you try to concisely define them. Here is a great thread to drive the idea home.Perhaps micro-evolution is. But I have to question how macro-evolution would be repeatedly observable.
I encourage you to start a thread about an aspect of the TofE that you do not agree with. There are quite a few knowledgeable participants that may persuade you.I am dissuaded to various aspects of each of these lines of reasoning.
Hence, I find it equally likely that apes may descended from early humans as vice versa.
Well add to that the fact that there were literally thousands of corrections/revisions made to the text between the real 1611 version and the 1850 version.I have difficulty seeing how the 1611 KJV could be infallibly inspired, if it started with 80 books and then was cut down to 66 books.
http://www.bibletexts.com/kjv-tr.htm#5Unknown to many people is the fact that the KJV actually was revised many times between the date of its first publication in 1611 and the publication of the Revised Version, which was published between 1881-1885. Those early KJV revisions were published without being labeled as a "revision." That today's KJV editions are revisions can be seen from the title page to the last verses of Revelation, which in the 1611 KJV was written, "Reuelation." The 1611 KJV text of the title page was written:
SINCE 1613, PROOF OF ACTUAL WORD CHANGES IN KJV REVISIONS AFFECTING THE SENSE OF MANY PASSAGES. Since the revisions of the KJV from 1613-1850 made (in addition to changes in punctuation, capitalization, and spelling) many THOUSANDS of changes in words, word order, possessives, singulars for plurals, articles, pronouns, conjunctions, prepositions, entire phrases, and the addition and deletion of words would you say the KJV was "verbally inerrant" in 1611... or 1613, 1629, 1638, 1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, or 1850?
What I try to do then, is look it up myself,
What I want to do is, read this in whole: http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/comdesc/
Then read Ashby Camp's rebuttal : http://www.trueorigin.org/theobald1a.asp
I'll see what I think after I finish...
Though I do have a great zeal for creationism, the bible(KJV), and christianity...
The process itself does not have to be observed. Indirect evidence pointing to the process or fact is enough.I'm sorry, but I have no idea what this means. I don't wish to be disrespectful.
We have never observed the process of germs making us ill. We have observed indirect evidence of this, ranging from people having the germ that become ill, people making anti-bodies against the germs etc. The process itself does not need to be observed to conclude that it happens from the evidence.How so?
Okay. But what if counter-evidence doesn't otherwise present itself?I could be wrong. If so, I'm fairly sure that evidence will eventually show itself to lead me to that conclusion. It's happened before and it's how I came to my present conclusions.
Why do you assume this?If I am wrong there will be evidence that can prove me wrong.
What does 'provisionally' correct mean?It is only fair that until then I see my views as provisionally correct.
I was referencing an article that someone had provided earlier in this thread. Perhaps it will best explain it's own terminologies.What is macro-evolution, and how does it differ from micro-evolution?
Why would you assume that there is an unknown barrier?Is macro-evolution speciation? If so what is the unknown barrier that stops multiple episodes of micro-evolution becoming macro-evolution?
Why do you assume that I think macro-evolution can't happen?If you don't think macro-evolution/speciation can happen then you obviously just haven't investigated the large amounts of evidence for speciation in the lab and in the wild.
Good luck
I was referencing an article that someone had provided earlier in this thread. Perhaps it will best explain it's own terminologies.
http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/comdesc/
Why would you assume that there is an unknown barrier?
Why do you assume that I think macro-evolution can't happen?