- Aug 19, 2018
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Ok, so lets take the "shoulds" out:
P1 Stealing Nancy's property causes unfair harm
P2 I won't cause unfair harm
C I won't steal Nancy's car
Now as far as I can tell P1 and P2 can be proven by acting them out, or in the case of P2, not causing unfair harm. So how is this not a valid and sound argument for objective morality?
This is so frustrating...
Let's not use the word 'steal' as it already implies an act which is wrong. Let's not prejudge an act by using abterm that could already be considered immoral. So let's say that you take Nancy's car. Is that immoral? We don't know. We need further information. So here are some objective facts:
Nancy didn't give permission for you to take it.
You intend to keep it.
You took it because you didn't want to buy one yourself.
Now all those are objective facts. But please take this on board. Because they are objective facts, that doesn't make the act objective. The act is relative to those facts.
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