Again with the special pleading.
Its not special pleading because its a fact. It is well known and accepted that moral language is different to other statements about the world. Moral statements are proscriptive while other statements about the world or self are descriptive. So it cannot be reduced to logic as descriptive language like in science is logically based whereas moral language being proscriptive is normative.
A description is just what you think it is: It describes a situation or what a philosopher might call a state of affairs. A normative statement is a claim about how things ought to be.
Distinguishing Between Descriptive Versus Normative Statements | Howe Writing Across the Curriculum Programs - Miami University
Yeah, that's not what you said. You literally said colours were real, then you said they were not real. Your scramble to justifty it now is not convincing.
So you want to base your arguement om me being inconsistent and not what I am actually saying. That is just a logical fallacy.
Regardless now I am making my position clear. That is we treat colours like they are real and they influence reality and yet there is no such thing as a colour in any physical sense. I have shown you the science for this. Besides you have already acknowledged that there are non-physical realities that can be facts/truths so this is one of those examples.
So? I have never argued that. I have even repeatedly said that there are things like rape that objectively cause harm. But that's not the same thing as morality, since two different people can have completely different responses to the same situation, and thus you can't say that the morality of the situation is the same for both people.
That seems a very weak arguement. Your more or less saying that the only reason there are no objective morals is because we disagree. Thats another logical fallacy which doesn't follow.
But heres the real point. We can say that anyone who disagrees "That rape is wrong" and claims "rape is OK to do" is objectively wrong. Is there any way we can say that "rape is good morally" I don't think so. Can we say that those who think "rape is OK to do" are just mistaken and objectively wrong, Yes of course. Do we accept that raping people is OK, no of course not. So there you have it we can declare "Rape is wrong" objectively.
If you disagree then you will have to rationalise why "rape is OK to do". Because when it comes to morality which matters to us we want to be able to stand on solid ground and declare that some acts are objectively wrong to do. There is only two positions either its right or its wrong and there is no room for relative/subjective views.
And as long as it doesn't involve people against their will, why not?
See how you slipped the objective basis in by saying "as long as it doesn't involve people against their will". Why would it matter if another culture is forcing people against their will to do things. From their relative moral position they think its OK. You cannot impose your morals on them because you don't live in their culture.
So you have to accept that their different relative view though immoral to your culture is just a different view and not really wrong in any way outside cultures..
With that logic we could say any culture that makes rape, genocide, and other bad treatments of humans is only following the culture they were conditioned to. To them it may bring benefits, even though we cannot understand that.
But the moment we bring in some basis like the bad actions of other cultures hurts humans to justifiy why we can say that the culture is wrong we introduce an objective basis ie (it hurts humans). We cannot avoid appealing to some basis to justify why we think something is wrong. Feeling or preferring it as wrong doesn't work, as its not normative.