Rubiks
proud libtard
- Aug 14, 2012
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And I ask about the possibility of scripture being changed in Matthew 28:19, because I come from a family deep rooted in Judaism and Catholicism before my Grandfather converted his lineage to Protestantism. And the family (still following Catholicism) were major financial supporters and received tons of literature explaining the Nicene Council and how the Baptismal Formula changed to the "trinity" in the 4th century. Originally, before the Nicene Council, the Baptismal Formula for all churches was done in the Name of Yeshua.[/ATTACH]
There really isn't any evidence Matt 28:19 is a later interpolation all no manuscript or fragment skips over this verse; and the patristics are all aware of it.
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Besides, Matthew 28:19 isn't even all that useful for defending the trinity, People who deny the trinity don't deny that the 3 persons that make up the trinity exist.
While I think you'll find broad support for the trinity in the Bible, it needs to be recognized trinitarian "Christianese" that developed in the latter centuries is mostly absent from the Bible. I don't think the writers had a developed mental conception of the trinity.
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