Is salvation by faith alone, or by faith plus works

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Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
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And the context for Romans 10:4 is the Old Covenant Law of Moses and not all Law.

"Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved." (Romans 10:1).


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stuart lawrence

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But now a righteousness APART from law has been made known.....
Rom3:21

Not apart from some law, apart from law!

You wouldn't need a righteousness apart from the law of Torah. Torah could faultlessly be obeyed. It was the moral law/TC that no one could faultlessly obey. That is why a righteousness apart from law was needed.
 
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Acts2:38

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BUMP for Acts 2:38.

Yet, I say again...

And the word baptism and what it means in the Koine Greek

From 1 Peter 3:21 = βάπτισμα báptisma, bap'-tis-mah; from G907; baptism

immersion, submersion

of Christian baptism; a rite of immersion in water as commanded by Christ, by which one after confessing his sins and professing his faith in Christ, having been born again by the Holy Spirit unto a new life, identifies publicly with the fellowship of Christ and the church.

From Acts 2:38 = βαπτίζω baptízō, bap-tid'-zo; from a derivative of G911; to immerse, submerge; to make whelmed (i.e. fully wet); used only (in the New Testament) of ceremonial ablution, especially (technically) of the ordinance of Christian baptism

to dip repeatedly, to immerse, to submerge (of vessels sunk)

The word baptism means to immerse in water.

Maybe this will also help as an example, Acts 8:36-39. Seems like water is used there.
 
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stuart lawrence

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immersion, submersion

of Christian baptism; a rite of immersion in water as commanded by Christ, by which one after confessing his sins and professing his faith in Christ, having been born again by the Holy Spirit unto a new life, identifies publicly with the fellowship of Christ and the church.
.
So someone who has been born again of the Holy Spirit should be baptised in water according to the biblical command?
Absolutely.
 
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Acts2:38

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Your lengthy post is a good example of what happens on the internet. People will reason anything, and at extraordinary length in order to defend their position.

Huh. I never thought I would see the day when someone says that too much evidence and explanation means someone is automatically wrong. You probably didn't even read it, so you can't possibly say that I am wrong about this. Anyhow, I suppose we are done here.


Cornelius and his household were in a saved state PRIOR to being baptised in water.

Which you have not proved with any verses and I have.

Thank you sir. I bid you a wonderful day/night.
 
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Acts2:38

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So someone who has been born again of the Holy Spirit should be baptised in water according to the biblical command?
Absolutely.

When did the Ethiopian receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

When did the Jews in Acts 2:38 receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

When did the philippian jailer receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

When did Paul receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

All of these before or after baptism in water/immersion? Please cite verses.

Now, could you be the one who misunderstands?
 
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stuart lawrence

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Huh. I never thought I would see the day when someone says that too much evidence and explanation means someone is automatically wrong. You probably didn't even read it, so you can't possibly say that I am wrong about this. Anyhow, I suppose we are done here.




Which you have not proved with any verses and I have.

Thank you sir. I bid you a wonderful day/night.
Well I did read a lot of what you wrote. It was simply an attempt to defend an impossible position.
You cannot prove a person who has received the Holy Spirit as the disciples did at Pentecost is in an unsaved state.
It is a ridiculous notion. However, people will try and defend the ridiculous rather than admit to error. Sadly
 
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stuart lawrence

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When did the Ethiopian receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

When did the Jews in Acts 2:38 receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

When did the philippian jailer receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

When did Paul receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

All of these before or after baptism in water/immersion? Please cite verses.

Now, could you be the one who misunderstands?
Stop deflecting. You just wrote that those born again of the Holy Spirit should get baptised in water. I agreed with you.
So now you must claim those born again of the Holy Spirit are not yet in a saved state
When did the Ethiopian receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

When did the Jews in Acts 2:38 receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

When did the philippian jailer receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

When did Paul receive the Spirit like Cornelius?

All of these before or after baptism in water/immersion? Please cite verses.

Now, could you be the one who misunderstands?
I don't misunderstand at all. Those who have received the Holy Spirit are in a saved state. That is the spiritual proof, as anyone should realise
 
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stuart lawrence said in post #199:

They dumb the law of God down to a place they claim they obey it.

Note that the Bible itself says it's not difficult for Christians to perfectly obey everything God requires of them (1 John 5:3b, Matthew 11:28-30, John 14:15,21, Matthew 5:48, Revelation 3:2; 2 Timothy 3:16-17, Colossians 1:28, Philippians 3:15; 1 Corinthians 2:6; 2 Corinthians 13:11).

If we love God, we will obey Him (1 John 5:3, John 14:21-24). And if we obey Him, He will continue to love us (John 15:10).

stuart lawrence said in post #199:

Then he adds
Their sins and lawless deeds I will remember no more
Heb10:16&17

Hebrews 10:17 applies only to all sins by Christians which have been repented from and confessed to God (1 John 1:9), not to any unrepented sins (Hebrews 10:26-29).

-

Every believer in the Gospel of Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4, John 20:31) can know he's presently saved (1 John 5:13; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4), if after he became a Christian he repented from his sins (1 John 3:6) and confessed them to God (1 John 1:9). And he can be sure as a saved person he can never be separated from the love of God, so long as he loves God (Romans 8:28-39), which means to obey Him (1 John 5:3, John 14:21-24). And no matter how many tests a Christian fails during his lifetime, sometime subsequent to his initial repentance, even if he fails and commits sin 70-times-seven times in a single day (Matthew 18:21-22, Luke 17:4), he can be sure that so long as he sincerely repents from every act of sin and confesses it to God, he will be completely forgiven (1 John 1:9). He will lose his salvation ultimately only if he wrongly employs his free will to do something like committing a sin without repentance (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46), or becoming utterly lazy without repentance (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8), or committing apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12).

*******

stuart lawrence said in post #239:

God would forgive sins under the old covenant.

Note that Hebrews 10:4 shows it's impossible for Old Covenant Mosaic animal sacrifices to take away sins, like Jesus Christ's sacrifice of Himself on the Cross can (1 John 1:7). Also, Hebrews 10:4 was true even back when the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was still in effect, that is, even before it was abolished on Jesus' Cross (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18). For all that the Mosaic animal sacrifices could ever do is ritually purify the flesh (Hebrews 9:13,10), never the conscience (Hebrews 9:9, Hebrews 10:1-4).

*******

stuart lawrence said in post #242:

But now a righteousness APART from law has been made known.....
Rom3:21

Not apart from some law, apart from law!

Romans 3:21 can mean both that initial justification is by faith without works (Romans 4:1-5, Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5), and that neither initial justification nor ultimate justification requires works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 3:28, Acts 13:39). Romans 3:21 isn't contradicting that Christians must have both faith and continued works of faith (1 Thessalonians 1:3, Galatians 5:6b, Titus 3:8) (not works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law) if they're to obtain ultimate salvation (Romans 2:6-8, James 2:24, Matthew 7:21, Matthew 25:26,30, Philippians 2:12b, Philippians 3:11-14; 2 Corinthians 5:9, Hebrews 5:9, Hebrews 6:10-12; 2 Peter 1:10-11, John 15:2a; 1 John 2:17b). For Christians must continue to do righteous deeds if they're to continue to be righteous (1 John 3:7, James 2:24,26). And there's no assurance Christians will choose to do that, instead of wrongly employing their free will to become utterly lazy without repentance, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a).
 
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-57 said in post #218:

The Bible presents scripture which mention salvation... and baptism with water isn't mentioned.
John 3:16 is perhaps the most famous....“For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.....no mention of water.

Note that while baptism isn't mentioned in every salvation verse, it's mentioned in enough salvation verses to make it clear that in order to be saved ultimately, Christians must get water-immersion (burial) baptized into Jesus Christ's death for our sins. For:

Mark 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved . . .

1 Peter 3:21 . . . baptism doth also now save us . . .

Romans 6:3 Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?
4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.
5 For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection:
6 Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin.
7 For he that is dead is freed from sin.
8 Now if we be dead with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him:
9 Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him.
10 For in that he died, he died unto sin once: but in that he liveth, he liveth unto God.
11 Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Colossians 2:12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

Galatians 3:27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.

Acts 2:38 . . . be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins . . .

Acts 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

-57 said in post #218:

The Bible presents scripture which mention salvation... and baptism with water isn't mentioned.
John 3:16 is perhaps the most famous....“For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.....no mention of water.

Note that the way to do Christian theology isn't to base it on what an unqualified verse says to Christians, but on what the entire Bible says to Christians (2 Timothy 3:16, Matthew 4:4). A verse applicable to Christians in one place in the Bible must be compared with (qualified by) other, related verses (also applicable to Christians) elsewhere in the Bible (Isaiah 28:9-10; 1 Corinthians 2:13).

An example of an unqualified verse would be John 3:36. We can't say it means all we have to believe is Jesus Christ is the Son of God. For John 3:36 must be qualified by, for example, 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 (and vice versa). We have to believe both that Jesus Christ is the Son of God and that He suffered and died on the Cross for our sins and rose physically from the dead on the third day. So when John 3:36 is qualified, something is added to it, not subtracted from it. 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 adds further belief requirements to John 3:36 (and vice versa). 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 doesn't subtract, negate or contradict the belief requirement of John 3:36 (or vice versa).

Another way John 3:36 must be qualified is we can't say it means all we have to do is believe for at least one moment during our lifetime. For John 3:36 must be qualified by other verses which show initially saved people will obtain ultimate salvation only if they continue to believe to the end (Hebrews 3:6,14, Colossians 1:23). And this is just one of the conditions the Bible as a whole shows must be met for initially saved people to obtain ultimate salvation (e.g. Romans 2:6-8; 1 Corinthians 9:27).
 
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stuart lawrence

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Note that the Bible itself says it's not difficult for Christians to perfectly obey everything God requires of them (1 John 5:3b, Matthew 11:28-30, John 14:15,21, Matthew 5:48, Revelation 3:2; 2 Timothy 3:16-17, Colossians 1:28, Philippians 3:15; 1 Corinthians 2:6; 2 Corinthians 13:11).

If we love God, we will obey Him (1 John 5:3, John 14:21-24). And if we obey Him, He will continue to love us (John 15:10).



Hebrews 10:17 applies only to all sins by Christians which have been repented from and confessed to God (1 John 1:9), not to any unrepented sins (Hebrews 10:26-29).

-

Every believer in the Gospel of Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4, John 20:31) can know he's presently saved (1 John 5:13; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4), if after he became a Christian he repented from his sins (1 John 3:6) and confessed them to God (1 John 1:9). And he can be sure as a saved person he can never be separated from the love of God, so long as he loves God (Romans 8:28-39), which means to obey Him (1 John 5:3, John 14:21-24). And no matter how many tests a Christian fails during his lifetime, sometime subsequent to his initial repentance, even if he fails and commits sin 70-times-seven times in a single day (Matthew 18:21-22, Luke 17:4), he can be sure that so long as he sincerely repents from every act of sin and confesses it to God, he will be completely forgiven (1 John 1:9). He will lose his salvation ultimately only if he wrongly employs his free will to do something like committing a sin without repentance (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46), or becoming utterly lazy without repentance (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8), or committing apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12).

*******



Note that Hebrews 10:4 shows it's impossible for Old Covenant Mosaic animal sacrifices to take away sins, like Jesus Christ's sacrifice of Himself on the Cross can (1 John 1:7). Also, Hebrews 10:4 was true even back when the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was still in effect, that is, even before it was abolished on Jesus' Cross (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18). For all that the Mosaic animal sacrifices could ever do is ritually purify the flesh (Hebrews 9:13,10), never the conscience (Hebrews 9:9, Hebrews 10:1-4).

*******



Romans 3:21 can mean both that initial justification is by faith without works (Romans 4:1-5, Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5), and that neither initial justification nor ultimate justification requires works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 3:28, Acts 13:39). Romans 3:21 isn't contradicting that Christians must have both faith and continued works of faith (1 Thessalonians 1:3, Galatians 5:6b, Titus 3:8) (not works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law) if they're to obtain ultimate salvation (Romans 2:6-8, James 2:24, Matthew 7:21, Matthew 25:26,30, Philippians 2:12b, Philippians 3:11-14; 2 Corinthians 5:9, Hebrews 5:9, Hebrews 6:10-12; 2 Peter 1:10-11, John 15:2a; 1 John 2:17b). For Christians must continue to do righteous deeds if they're to continue to be righteous (1 John 3:7, James 2:24,26). And there's no assurance Christians will choose to do that, instead of wrongly employing their free will to become utterly lazy without repentance, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a).

Well, you wrote a lot, too much to respond to in one post.
If it isn't difficult to perfectly obey all God requires of you, in what sense do you mean? Obeying Commandments?

Do you perfectly, without slip love all those you come into contact with, even those who hate, slander, persecute and malign you?
Do you never have any impure thoughts?
Do you never get angry, or have unkind thoughts about anyone?

If you fail any of those tests, and you believe it isn't difficult to perfectly obey them, does this mean you are just being lazy and dont truly love God?

Youve read the Bible much, that's obvious.

Why are sinful passions aroused in people by the law if they live under it? Rom7:5

And why shall sin not be your master for you are not under law but under grace? Rom6:14
 
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stuart lawrence

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Note that the Bible itself says it's not difficult for Christians to perfectly obey everything God requires of them (1 John 5:3b, Matthew 11:28-30, John 14:15,21, Matthew 5:48, Revelation 3:2; 2 Timothy 3:16-17, Colossians 1:28, Philippians 3:15; 1 Corinthians 2:6; 2 Corinthians 13:11).

If we love God, we will obey Him (1 John 5:3, John 14:21-24). And if we obey Him, He will continue to love us (John 15:10).



Hebrews 10:17 applies only to all sins by Christians which have been repented from and confessed to God (1 John 1:9), not to any unrepented sins (Hebrews 10:26-29).

-

Every believer in the Gospel of Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4, John 20:31) can know he's presently saved (1 John 5:13; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4), if after he became a Christian he repented from his sins (1 John 3:6) and confessed them to God (1 John 1:9). And he can be sure as a saved person he can never be separated from the love of God, so long as he loves God (Romans 8:28-39), which means to obey Him (1 John 5:3, John 14:21-24). And no matter how many tests a Christian fails during his lifetime, sometime subsequent to his initial repentance, even if he fails and commits sin 70-times-seven times in a single day (Matthew 18:21-22, Luke 17:4), he can be sure that so long as he sincerely repents from every act of sin and confesses it to God, he will be completely forgiven (1 John 1:9). He will lose his salvation ultimately only if he wrongly employs his free will to do something like committing a sin without repentance (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46), or becoming utterly lazy without repentance (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8), or committing apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12).

*******



Note that Hebrews 10:4 shows it's impossible for Old Covenant Mosaic animal sacrifices to take away sins, like Jesus Christ's sacrifice of Himself on the Cross can (1 John 1:7). Also, Hebrews 10:4 was true even back when the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was still in effect, that is, even before it was abolished on Jesus' Cross (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18). For all that the Mosaic animal sacrifices could ever do is ritually purify the flesh (Hebrews 9:13,10), never the conscience (Hebrews 9:9, Hebrews 10:1-4).

*******



Romans 3:21 can mean both that initial justification is by faith without works (Romans 4:1-5, Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5), and that neither initial justification nor ultimate justification requires works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 3:28, Acts 13:39). Romans 3:21 isn't contradicting that Christians must have both faith and continued works of faith (1 Thessalonians 1:3, Galatians 5:6b, Titus 3:8) (not works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law) if they're to obtain ultimate salvation (Romans 2:6-8, James 2:24, Matthew 7:21, Matthew 25:26,30, Philippians 2:12b, Philippians 3:11-14; 2 Corinthians 5:9, Hebrews 5:9, Hebrews 6:10-12; 2 Peter 1:10-11, John 15:2a; 1 John 2:17b). For Christians must continue to do righteous deeds if they're to continue to be righteous (1 John 3:7, James 2:24,26). And there's no assurance Christians will choose to do that, instead of wrongly employing their free will to become utterly lazy without repentance, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a).
The Apostle Pauls message is not understood by many. A message that states you must know sin cannot condemn you in order for sin not to be your master makes no sense to the logical mind.
Therefore people say you are righteous/ justified apart from law at the point of conversion, but not afterwards. This is not to understand Pauls message.
He relentless states the Christian is not under law( righteousness of observing the law) rom1:17, rom3:20, rom3:21&22, rom3:28, rom6:14, rom10:4, gal:2:19, gal2:21, Phil 3:9 etc.
So does Paul mean you are not under the law as long as you perfectly obey the law/don't commit sin? Doesn't sound right does it.
Does he mean you only have righteousness apart from law at the point of conversion?
If he meant that, the Christian must live their life under a law of righteousness in their Christian life, Paul is adamant they do not
 
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But now a righteousness APART from law has been made known.....
Rom3:21

Not apart from some law, apart from law!

You wouldn't need a righteousness apart from the law of Torah. Torah could faultlessly be obeyed. It was the moral law/TC that no one could faultlessly obey. That is why a righteousness apart from law was needed.

I looked through a number of translations and all of them have "apart from the law". Your interpretation is Romans 3:21 makes no sense.
 
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I'm astonished that so many Christians have not accepted God's grace, love, and forgiveness.

Salvation isn't a one-time deal, like a speed bump in the road. It has no value if you believe that, once saved, you must continue, as before, obeying God's commands and, once you violate a command, you must confess your sin, repent, and continue doing works that please God until you sin again.

There is a huge difference between being a servant and being a son (read son or daughter throughout). The slave must obey commands and live in fear of punishment. The son is loved as a family member and has no fear. Any punishment for sins committed has already been paid for by Jesus' sacrifice.

It is a natural tendency for many to not accept God's unconditional love and forgiveness, given freely and completely. They feel that they must do something (works) to earn what they have already been freely given. I feel deeply for those who constantly feel guilty and continue to struggle to please God, who loves them unconditionally.

I would suggest that those who struggle with this issue to read the parable of the prodigal son in Luke 15 and really absorb what it says. The son mistakenly thinks that he must become like one of his father's servants to be accepted, following orders and accepting punishment for mistakes made. "But while he was still a long way off, his father saw him and felt compassion, and ran and embraced him and kissed him." There was no confession, repentance, etc. necessary, as the father's love was unconditional.

You are not under law but under grace.
 
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stuart lawrence

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I looked through a number of translations and all of them have "apart from the law". Your interpretation is Romans 3:21 makes no sense.
I use the NIV 1984 edition. I missed two words out!

But now a righteousness from God apart from law has been made known , to which the law and the prophets testify
 
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I use the NIV 1984 edition. I missed two words out!

But now a righteousness from God apart from law has been made known , to which the law and the prophets testify

The later NIV editions have corrected this verse.
 
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I did not ask about the OT Law, did I? I merely asked when you intend to start keeping the law. The question still stands. When you intend to start keeping the Law, that is, the NT Law?
You asked "When do you intend to start keeping the Law?" You did not specify what law you were talking about. Even in post #235, he thought you were referring to the OT law.

As I posted I do not keep the OT law of Moses but the NT law of Christ. As Paul said he was under law to Christ 1 Cor 9:21.
 
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